STUDENT REVIEW QUESTION SET I RANDOM CONTENT AREA RADT 2913 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW

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1 STUDENT REVIEW QUESTION SET I RANDOM CONTENT AREA RADT 2913 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW 1

2 What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as high-density artifacts resembling lightning or trees on the image? A. Processor chemistry B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 2

3 What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as high-density artifacts resembling lightning or trees on the image? A. Processor chemistry B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 3

4 Which device is used to regulate the voltage applied to the filament circuit? A. Autotransfonner B. Step-up transformer C. Step-down transformer D. Rectification system 4

5 Which device is used to regulate the voltage applied to the filament circuit? A. Autotransfonner B. Step-up transformer C. Step-down transformer D. Rectification system 5

6 The congenital condition in which the lower poles of the two kidneys are fused together is: A. agenesis B. ectopic kidneys C. polycystic kidneys D. horseshoe kidneys 6

7 The congenital condition in which the lower poles of the two kidneys are fused together is: A. agenesis B. ectopic kidneys C. polycystic kidneys D. horseshoe kidneys 7

8 The scale of radiographic contrast is controlled by: A. kilovoltage B. milliamperage C. exposure time D. source-to-image-receptor distance 8

9 The scale of radiographic contrast is controlled by: A. kilovoltage B. milliamperage C. exposure time D. source-to-image-receptor distance 9

10 What is the most appropriate type of contrast medium for lymphography? A. Air B. Iodized oils C. Barium sulfate D. Water-soluble iodine 10

11 What is the most appropriate type of contrast medium for lymphography? A. Air B. Iodized oils C. Barium sulfate D. Water-soluble iodine 11

12 The role of the beam-splitting mirror in the configuration of the image intensifier and the TV monitoring system is to divide the A. input image between the photocathode and output phosphor B. electrons from the photocathode between the input and output phosphors C. output image between TV camera and photospot camera D. x-ray beam between the input and output phosphors 12

13 The role of the beam-splitting mirror in the configuration of the image intensifier and the TV monitoring system is to divide the A. input image between the photocathode and output phosphor B. electrons from the photocathode between the input and output phosphors C. output image between TV camera and photospot camera D. x-ray beam between the input and output phosphors 13

14 The correct method for administering rescue breathing to an adult victim is to deliver a A. gentle, slow breath, every 3 seconds B. gentle, slow breath, every 5 seconds C. forceful, quick breath every 3 seconds D. forceful, quick breath every 5 seconds 14

15 The correct method for administering rescue breathing to an adult victim is to deliver a A. gentle, slow breath, every 3 seconds B. gentle, slow breath, every 5 seconds C. forceful, quick breath every 3 seconds D. forceful, quick breath every 5 seconds 15

16 The secondary and scattered radiation affects decreases with: A. small focal spot sizes B. compensating filters C. intensifying screens D. radiographic grids 16

17 The secondary and scattered radiation affects decreases with: A. small focal spot sizes B. compensating filters C. intensifying screens D. radiographic grids 17

18 The cardinal rules of radiation protection recommend the use of: A. maximum exposure time, distance, and shielding B. automatic exposure control, fast imaging systems, and maximum shielding C. minimum exposure time, maximum distance, and appropriate shielding D. maximum beam restriction, minimum exposure time, and maximum distance 18

19 The cardinal rules of radiation protection recommend the use of: A. maximum exposure time, distance, and shielding B. automatic exposure control, fast imaging systems, and maximum shielding C. minimum exposure time, maximum distance, and appropriate shielding D. maximum beam restriction, minimum exposure time, and maximum distance 19

20 What would be a likely cause for an increase in the half-value layer (HVL) over a period of 2 years? A. Repeated use of very high milliamperage with a small focal spot B. Inappropriate use of the positive beam limitation C. Buildup of tungsten plating on the window of the x-ray tube D. Failure to adequately warm up the x-ray tube prior to use 20

21 What would be a likely cause for an increase in the half-value layer (HVL) over a period of 2 years? A. Repeated use of very high milliamperage with a small focal spot B. Inappropriate use of the positive beam limitation C. Buildup of tungsten plating on the window of the x-ray tube D. Failure to adequately warm up the x-ray tube prior to use 21

22 Which of the following are types of immobilization devices? A. Sandbags, slider boards, tape B. Tape, compression bands, grids C. Cassette holder, slider board, head clamps D. Compression bands, sandbags, velcro straps 22

23 Which of the following are types of immobilization devices? A. Sandbags, slider boards, tape B. Tape, compression bands, grids C. Cassette holder, slider board, head clamps D. Compression bands, sandbags, velcro straps 23

24 What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as either high-density or low-density marks, usually in a fairly linear form? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 24

25 What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as either high-density or low-density marks, usually in a fairly linear form? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 25

26 What waveform has a frequency of 360 cycles per second? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 26

27 What waveform has a frequency of 360 cycles per second? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 27

28 What is the name of the thin flap covering the laryngeal entrance during swallowing? A. epiglottis B. epididymis C. epilaryngeal D. epipharyngeal 28

29 What is the name of the thin flap covering the laryngeal entrance during swallowing? A. epiglottis B. epididymis C. epilaryngeal D. epipharyngeal 29

30 The slight density on an unexposed radiographic film is: A. base plus fog B. base density C. gamma D. fog 30

31 The slight density on an unexposed radiographic film is: A. base plus fog B. base density C. gamma D. fog 31

32 The projection that best demonstrates the clavicle free from superimposition by the ribs is the A. AP projection; CR directed 30 caudal B. PA projection; CR directed 30 caudal C. PA projection; CR directed 10 cephalad D. AP projection; CR directed perpendicular to clavicle 32

33 The projection that best demonstrates the clavicle free from superimposition by the ribs is the A. AP projection; CR directed 30 caudal B. PA projection; CR directed 30 caudal C. PA projection; CR directed 10 cephalad D. AP projection; CR directed perpendicular to clavicle 33

34 For what purpose is a dose-response relationship important? A. It determines the LET of various radiation types B. It indicates the mean survival time following radiation exposure C. It assigns quality factors to different types of radiation D. It is used in the development of radiation protection policies 34

35 For what purpose is a dose-response relationship important? A. It determines the LET of various radiation types B. It indicates the mean survival time following radiation exposure C. It assigns quality factors to different types of radiation D. It is used in the development of radiation protection policies 35

36 For which type of medical emergency should a pillow be placed under the patient's head? A. Patient in need of CPR B. Patient having a seizure C. Patient in need of rescue breathing D. Unconscious patient with an obstructed airway 36

37 For which type of medical emergency should a pillow be placed under the patient's head? A. Patient in need of CPR B. Patient having a seizure C. Patient in need of rescue breathing D. Unconscious patient with an obstructed airway 37

38 What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is an addition of barium sulfate contrast medium? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 38

39 What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is an addition of barium sulfate contrast medium? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 39

40 A spinning top device may be used to evaluate A. filtration B. grid alignment C. exposure timer D. exposure output 40

41 A spinning top device may be used to evaluate A. filtration B. grid alignment C. exposure timer D. exposure output 41

42 Cystography is performed to demonstrate the: A. retrograde fascia B. urinary bladder C. renal pelvis D. renal calyx 42

43 Cystography is performed to demonstrate the: A. retrograde fascia B. urinary bladder C. renal pelvis D. renal calyx 43

44 Which of the following is SMALLEST? A. target B. space charge C. actual focal spot D. effective focal spot 44

45 Which of the following is SMALLEST? A. target B. space charge C. actual focal spot D. effective focal spot 45

46 A Colles' type of fracture would be revealed during a radiographic examination of the A. hip B. wrist C. ankle D. shoulder 46

47 A Colles' type of fracture would be revealed during a radiographic examination of the A. hip B. wrist C. ankle D. shoulder 47

48 What term is used to describe the flow of current at a constant peak potential? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 48

49 What term is used to describe the flow of current at a constant peak potential? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 49

50 Where is the perpendicular plate located? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Ethmoid bone 50

51 Where is the perpendicular plate located? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Ethmoid bone 51

52 What is the advantage offered by dual or trifocus image intensifier tubes? A. Brighter image B. Less patient dose C. Ability to create a magnified image D. Lower exposure factors 52

53 What is the advantage offered by dual or trifocus image intensifier tubes? A. Brighter image B. Less patient dose C. Ability to create a magnified image D. Lower exposure factors 53

54 The projection that best demonstrates the sesamoid bones of the foot is the A. tangential B. dorsoplantar C. plantodorsal D. medial oblique 54

55 The projection that best demonstrates the sesamoid bones of the foot is the A. tangential B. dorsoplantar C. plantodorsal D. medial oblique 55

56 Distortion of the shape in the radiographic image can be controlled by proper: A. increase OID B. decrease SID C. decreased part angulation D. large focal spot size selection 56

57 Distortion of the shape in the radiographic image can be controlled by proper: A. increase OID B. decrease SID C. decreased part angulation D. large focal spot size selection 57

58 A slower than average pulse rate is termed A. bradycardia B. tachycardia C. hypertension D. vasovagal reaction 58

59 A slower than average pulse rate is termed A. bradycardia B. tachycardia C. hypertension D. vasovagal reaction 59

60 Which intrinsic factor will have the GREATEST effect on recorded detail? A. x-ray film B. screen speed C. size of cassette D. screen/film contact 60

61 Which intrinsic factor will have the GREATEST effect on recorded detail? A. x-ray film B. screen speed C. size of cassette D. screen/film contact 61

62 The axiolateral oblique projection of the mastoid process may be performed with a CR angle of 15 caudad and the head rotated from the lateral position A. 15 toward the table B. 45 toward the table C. 15 away from the table D. 45 away from the table 62

63 The axiolateral oblique projection of the mastoid process may be performed with a CR angle of 15 caudad and the head rotated from the lateral position A. 15 toward the table B. 45 toward the table C. 15 away from the table D. 45 away from the table 63

64 All the following are influenced by changes in SID EXCEPT A. recorded detail B. distortion C. density D. contrast 64

65 All the following are influenced by changes in SID EXCEPT A. recorded detail B. distortion C. density D. contrast 65

66 Increased spatial resolution on a CR image will be seen with: A. larger pixel size B. thicker phosphor layer C. thinner phosphor layer D. all of the above 66

67 Increased spatial resolution on a CR image will be seen with: A. larger pixel size B. thicker phosphor layer C. thinner phosphor layer D. all of the above 67

68 The minimum number of persons required to perform a radiographic examination on a patient in strict isolation is A. one B. two C. three D. four 68

69 The minimum number of persons required to perform a radiographic examination on a patient in strict isolation is A. one B. two C. three D. four 69

70 What is the acceptable range of variation for linearity of exposure? A. ±2% B. ±5% C. ±10% D. ±50% 70

71 What is the acceptable range of variation for linearity of exposure? A. ±2% B. ±5% C. ±10% D. ±50% 71

72 When performing an AP tangential projection of the mastoid process, the head should be rotated A. 15 toward the side of interest B. 15 away from the side of interest C. 55 toward the side of interest D. 55 away from the side of interest 72

73 When performing an AP tangential projection of the mastoid process, the head should be rotated A. 15 toward the side of interest B. 15 away from the side of interest C. 55 toward the side of interest D. 55 away from the side of interest 73

74 The maximum time that may elapse before the cumulative timer is activated on a fluoroscopic unit is A. 2 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 8 minutes D. 10 minutes 74

75 The maximum time that may elapse before the cumulative timer is activated on a fluoroscopic unit is A. 2 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 8 minutes D. 10 minutes 75

76 What type of radiation effect causes death within 3 weeks of exposure? A. Genetic effect B. Early somatic effect C. Late somatic effect D. Fluoroscopic effect 76

77 What type of radiation effect causes death within 3 weeks of exposure? A. Genetic effect B. Early somatic effect C. Late somatic effect D. Fluoroscopic effect 77

78 What ma is the normal tube current requirement for fluoroscopy? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 100 D. 100 to

79 What ma is the normal tube current requirement for fluoroscopy? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 100 D. 100 to

80 What variation from the recumbent AP projection must be made to image the abdomen in the erect AP projection? A. Center at the ASIS B. Center 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest C. Center more to the left side of the midsagittal plane D. Center more to the right side of the midsagittal plane 80

81 What variation from the recumbent AP projection must be made to image the abdomen in the erect AP projection? A. Center at the ASIS B. Center 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest C. Center more to the left side of the midsagittal plane D. Center more to the right side of the midsagittal plane 81

82 Which medical emergency is most likely occurring when a patient is seen clutching his or her throat? A. Vertigo B. Syncope C. Heart attack D. Obstructed airway 82

83 Which medical emergency is most likely occurring when a patient is seen clutching his or her throat? A. Vertigo B. Syncope C. Heart attack D. Obstructed airway 83

84 What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is insufficient radiographic density? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 84

85 What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is insufficient radiographic density? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 85

86 Which statement is true regarding routine oblique positions for chest radiography? A. The LAO best demonstrates the left lung B. Chest obliques require body rotation of 60 C. The RAO best demonstrates the left lung D. Respiration should be suspended on the first full expiration 86

87 Which statement is true regarding routine oblique positions for chest radiography? A. The LAO best demonstrates the left lung B. Chest obliques require body rotation of 60 C. The RAO best demonstrates the left lung D. Respiration should be suspended on the first full expiration 87

88 What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as generalized blurring of the entire image? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 88

89 What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as generalized blurring of the entire image? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 89

90 What action should be taken if results of a quality control procedure do not meet minimum standards? A. Call in a service engineer B. Inform the chief radiologist C. Record the results for future reference D. Repeat the quality control procedure 90

91 What action should be taken if results of a quality control procedure do not meet minimum standards? A. Call in a service engineer B. Inform the chief radiologist C. Record the results for future reference D. Repeat the quality control procedure Repeat the test to ensure the results are due what is being evaluated and not to the way in which the procedure Kawamura was performed. RADT 2913 (Item Set I) 91

92 The composition of the intervertebral disk includes A. A solid structure of hyaline membrane B. a cartilaginous center surrounded by a soft gelatinous exterior C. a soft, highly elastic center surrounded by a fibrocartilaginous exterior D. alternating layers of fibrocartilaginous rings and soft, highly elastic interspace material 92

93 The composition of the intervertebral disk includes A. A solid structure of hyaline membrane B. a cartilaginous center surrounded by a soft gelatinous exterior C. a soft, highly elastic center surrounded by a fibrocartilaginous exterior D. alternating layers of fibrocartilaginous rings and soft, highly elastic interspace material 93

94 Which test tool do you use to evaluate film-screen contact? A. Dosimeter B. Wire mesh C. Star resolution pattern D. Wisconsin test cassette 94

95 Which test tool do you use to evaluate film-screen contact? A. Dosimeter B. Wire mesh C. Star resolution pattern D. Wisconsin test cassette 95

96 The L-shaped bone located posterior to the nasal cavity is the: A. nasal conchae B. zygomatic C. palatine D. maxilla 96

97 The L-shaped bone located posterior to the nasal cavity is the: A. nasal conchae B. zygomatic C. palatine D. maxilla 97

98 What is the most appropriate way for a radiographer to communicate with a patient with hearing loss? A. Request an interpreter B. Increase both the pitch and volume of speech C. Look directly at the patient when speaking D. Talk as little as possible as the patient will not be able to understand anyway 98

99 What is the most appropriate way for a radiographer to communicate with a patient with hearing loss? A. Request an interpreter B. Increase both the pitch and volume of speech C. Look directly at the patient when speaking D. Talk as little as possible as the patient will not be able to understand anyway 99

100 What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is a decrease in SID? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 100

101 What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is a decrease in SID? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 101

102 Life is not measured by the number of breaths we take but by the moments that take our breath away. 102

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