STUDENT REVIEW QUESTION SET I RANDOM CONTENT AREA RADT 2913 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW 1
What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as high-density artifacts resembling lightning or trees on the image? A. Processor chemistry B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 2
What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as high-density artifacts resembling lightning or trees on the image? A. Processor chemistry B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 3
Which device is used to regulate the voltage applied to the filament circuit? A. Autotransfonner B. Step-up transformer C. Step-down transformer D. Rectification system 4
Which device is used to regulate the voltage applied to the filament circuit? A. Autotransfonner B. Step-up transformer C. Step-down transformer D. Rectification system 5
The congenital condition in which the lower poles of the two kidneys are fused together is: A. agenesis B. ectopic kidneys C. polycystic kidneys D. horseshoe kidneys 6
The congenital condition in which the lower poles of the two kidneys are fused together is: A. agenesis B. ectopic kidneys C. polycystic kidneys D. horseshoe kidneys 7
The scale of radiographic contrast is controlled by: A. kilovoltage B. milliamperage C. exposure time D. source-to-image-receptor distance 8
The scale of radiographic contrast is controlled by: A. kilovoltage B. milliamperage C. exposure time D. source-to-image-receptor distance 9
What is the most appropriate type of contrast medium for lymphography? A. Air B. Iodized oils C. Barium sulfate D. Water-soluble iodine 10
What is the most appropriate type of contrast medium for lymphography? A. Air B. Iodized oils C. Barium sulfate D. Water-soluble iodine 11
The role of the beam-splitting mirror in the configuration of the image intensifier and the TV monitoring system is to divide the A. input image between the photocathode and output phosphor B. electrons from the photocathode between the input and output phosphors C. output image between TV camera and photospot camera D. x-ray beam between the input and output phosphors 12
The role of the beam-splitting mirror in the configuration of the image intensifier and the TV monitoring system is to divide the A. input image between the photocathode and output phosphor B. electrons from the photocathode between the input and output phosphors C. output image between TV camera and photospot camera D. x-ray beam between the input and output phosphors 13
The correct method for administering rescue breathing to an adult victim is to deliver a A. gentle, slow breath, every 3 seconds B. gentle, slow breath, every 5 seconds C. forceful, quick breath every 3 seconds D. forceful, quick breath every 5 seconds 14
The correct method for administering rescue breathing to an adult victim is to deliver a A. gentle, slow breath, every 3 seconds B. gentle, slow breath, every 5 seconds C. forceful, quick breath every 3 seconds D. forceful, quick breath every 5 seconds 15
The secondary and scattered radiation affects decreases with: A. small focal spot sizes B. compensating filters C. intensifying screens D. radiographic grids 16
The secondary and scattered radiation affects decreases with: A. small focal spot sizes B. compensating filters C. intensifying screens D. radiographic grids 17
The cardinal rules of radiation protection recommend the use of: A. maximum exposure time, distance, and shielding B. automatic exposure control, fast imaging systems, and maximum shielding C. minimum exposure time, maximum distance, and appropriate shielding D. maximum beam restriction, minimum exposure time, and maximum distance 18
The cardinal rules of radiation protection recommend the use of: A. maximum exposure time, distance, and shielding B. automatic exposure control, fast imaging systems, and maximum shielding C. minimum exposure time, maximum distance, and appropriate shielding D. maximum beam restriction, minimum exposure time, and maximum distance 19
What would be a likely cause for an increase in the half-value layer (HVL) over a period of 2 years? A. Repeated use of very high milliamperage with a small focal spot B. Inappropriate use of the positive beam limitation C. Buildup of tungsten plating on the window of the x-ray tube D. Failure to adequately warm up the x-ray tube prior to use 20
What would be a likely cause for an increase in the half-value layer (HVL) over a period of 2 years? A. Repeated use of very high milliamperage with a small focal spot B. Inappropriate use of the positive beam limitation C. Buildup of tungsten plating on the window of the x-ray tube D. Failure to adequately warm up the x-ray tube prior to use 21
Which of the following are types of immobilization devices? A. Sandbags, slider boards, tape B. Tape, compression bands, grids C. Cassette holder, slider board, head clamps D. Compression bands, sandbags, velcro straps 22
Which of the following are types of immobilization devices? A. Sandbags, slider boards, tape B. Tape, compression bands, grids C. Cassette holder, slider board, head clamps D. Compression bands, sandbags, velcro straps 23
What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as either high-density or low-density marks, usually in a fairly linear form? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 24
What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as either high-density or low-density marks, usually in a fairly linear form? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 25
What waveform has a frequency of 360 cycles per second? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 26
What waveform has a frequency of 360 cycles per second? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 27
What is the name of the thin flap covering the laryngeal entrance during swallowing? A. epiglottis B. epididymis C. epilaryngeal D. epipharyngeal 28
What is the name of the thin flap covering the laryngeal entrance during swallowing? A. epiglottis B. epididymis C. epilaryngeal D. epipharyngeal 29
The slight density on an unexposed radiographic film is: A. base plus fog B. base density C. gamma D. fog 30
The slight density on an unexposed radiographic film is: A. base plus fog B. base density C. gamma D. fog 31
The projection that best demonstrates the clavicle free from superimposition by the ribs is the A. AP projection; CR directed 30 caudal B. PA projection; CR directed 30 caudal C. PA projection; CR directed 10 cephalad D. AP projection; CR directed perpendicular to clavicle 32
The projection that best demonstrates the clavicle free from superimposition by the ribs is the A. AP projection; CR directed 30 caudal B. PA projection; CR directed 30 caudal C. PA projection; CR directed 10 cephalad D. AP projection; CR directed perpendicular to clavicle 33
For what purpose is a dose-response relationship important? A. It determines the LET of various radiation types B. It indicates the mean survival time following radiation exposure C. It assigns quality factors to different types of radiation D. It is used in the development of radiation protection policies 34
For what purpose is a dose-response relationship important? A. It determines the LET of various radiation types B. It indicates the mean survival time following radiation exposure C. It assigns quality factors to different types of radiation D. It is used in the development of radiation protection policies 35
For which type of medical emergency should a pillow be placed under the patient's head? A. Patient in need of CPR B. Patient having a seizure C. Patient in need of rescue breathing D. Unconscious patient with an obstructed airway 36
For which type of medical emergency should a pillow be placed under the patient's head? A. Patient in need of CPR B. Patient having a seizure C. Patient in need of rescue breathing D. Unconscious patient with an obstructed airway 37
What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is an addition of barium sulfate contrast medium? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 38
What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is an addition of barium sulfate contrast medium? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 39
A spinning top device may be used to evaluate A. filtration B. grid alignment C. exposure timer D. exposure output 40
A spinning top device may be used to evaluate A. filtration B. grid alignment C. exposure timer D. exposure output 41
Cystography is performed to demonstrate the: A. retrograde fascia B. urinary bladder C. renal pelvis D. renal calyx 42
Cystography is performed to demonstrate the: A. retrograde fascia B. urinary bladder C. renal pelvis D. renal calyx 43
Which of the following is SMALLEST? A. target B. space charge C. actual focal spot D. effective focal spot 44
Which of the following is SMALLEST? A. target B. space charge C. actual focal spot D. effective focal spot 45
A Colles' type of fracture would be revealed during a radiographic examination of the A. hip B. wrist C. ankle D. shoulder 46
A Colles' type of fracture would be revealed during a radiographic examination of the A. hip B. wrist C. ankle D. shoulder 47
What term is used to describe the flow of current at a constant peak potential? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 48
What term is used to describe the flow of current at a constant peak potential? A. Direct current B. Alternating current C. Incoming voltage D. Three-phase power 49
Where is the perpendicular plate located? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Ethmoid bone 50
Where is the perpendicular plate located? A. Frontal bone B. Temporal bone C. Sphenoid bone D. Ethmoid bone 51
What is the advantage offered by dual or trifocus image intensifier tubes? A. Brighter image B. Less patient dose C. Ability to create a magnified image D. Lower exposure factors 52
What is the advantage offered by dual or trifocus image intensifier tubes? A. Brighter image B. Less patient dose C. Ability to create a magnified image D. Lower exposure factors 53
The projection that best demonstrates the sesamoid bones of the foot is the A. tangential B. dorsoplantar C. plantodorsal D. medial oblique 54
The projection that best demonstrates the sesamoid bones of the foot is the A. tangential B. dorsoplantar C. plantodorsal D. medial oblique 55
Distortion of the shape in the radiographic image can be controlled by proper: A. increase OID B. decrease SID C. decreased part angulation D. large focal spot size selection 56
Distortion of the shape in the radiographic image can be controlled by proper: A. increase OID B. decrease SID C. decreased part angulation D. large focal spot size selection 57
A slower than average pulse rate is termed A. bradycardia B. tachycardia C. hypertension D. vasovagal reaction 58
A slower than average pulse rate is termed A. bradycardia B. tachycardia C. hypertension D. vasovagal reaction 59
Which intrinsic factor will have the GREATEST effect on recorded detail? A. x-ray film B. screen speed C. size of cassette D. screen/film contact 60
Which intrinsic factor will have the GREATEST effect on recorded detail? A. x-ray film B. screen speed C. size of cassette D. screen/film contact 61
The axiolateral oblique projection of the mastoid process may be performed with a CR angle of 15 caudad and the head rotated from the lateral position A. 15 toward the table B. 45 toward the table C. 15 away from the table D. 45 away from the table 62
The axiolateral oblique projection of the mastoid process may be performed with a CR angle of 15 caudad and the head rotated from the lateral position A. 15 toward the table B. 45 toward the table C. 15 away from the table D. 45 away from the table 63
All the following are influenced by changes in SID EXCEPT A. recorded detail B. distortion C. density D. contrast 64
All the following are influenced by changes in SID EXCEPT A. recorded detail B. distortion C. density D. contrast 65
Increased spatial resolution on a CR image will be seen with: A. larger pixel size B. thicker phosphor layer C. thinner phosphor layer D. all of the above 66
Increased spatial resolution on a CR image will be seen with: A. larger pixel size B. thicker phosphor layer C. thinner phosphor layer D. all of the above 67
The minimum number of persons required to perform a radiographic examination on a patient in strict isolation is A. one B. two C. three D. four 68
The minimum number of persons required to perform a radiographic examination on a patient in strict isolation is A. one B. two C. three D. four 69
What is the acceptable range of variation for linearity of exposure? A. ±2% B. ±5% C. ±10% D. ±50% 70
What is the acceptable range of variation for linearity of exposure? A. ±2% B. ±5% C. ±10% D. ±50% 71
When performing an AP tangential projection of the mastoid process, the head should be rotated A. 15 toward the side of interest B. 15 away from the side of interest C. 55 toward the side of interest D. 55 away from the side of interest 72
When performing an AP tangential projection of the mastoid process, the head should be rotated A. 15 toward the side of interest B. 15 away from the side of interest C. 55 toward the side of interest D. 55 away from the side of interest 73
The maximum time that may elapse before the cumulative timer is activated on a fluoroscopic unit is A. 2 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 8 minutes D. 10 minutes 74
The maximum time that may elapse before the cumulative timer is activated on a fluoroscopic unit is A. 2 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 8 minutes D. 10 minutes 75
What type of radiation effect causes death within 3 weeks of exposure? A. Genetic effect B. Early somatic effect C. Late somatic effect D. Fluoroscopic effect 76
What type of radiation effect causes death within 3 weeks of exposure? A. Genetic effect B. Early somatic effect C. Late somatic effect D. Fluoroscopic effect 77
What ma is the normal tube current requirement for fluoroscopy? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 100 D. 100 to 1000 78
What ma is the normal tube current requirement for fluoroscopy? A. 1 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 10 to 100 D. 100 to 1000 79
What variation from the recumbent AP projection must be made to image the abdomen in the erect AP projection? A. Center at the ASIS B. Center 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest C. Center more to the left side of the midsagittal plane D. Center more to the right side of the midsagittal plane 80
What variation from the recumbent AP projection must be made to image the abdomen in the erect AP projection? A. Center at the ASIS B. Center 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest C. Center more to the left side of the midsagittal plane D. Center more to the right side of the midsagittal plane 81
Which medical emergency is most likely occurring when a patient is seen clutching his or her throat? A. Vertigo B. Syncope C. Heart attack D. Obstructed airway 82
Which medical emergency is most likely occurring when a patient is seen clutching his or her throat? A. Vertigo B. Syncope C. Heart attack D. Obstructed airway 83
What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is insufficient radiographic density? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 84
What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is insufficient radiographic density? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 85
Which statement is true regarding routine oblique positions for chest radiography? A. The LAO best demonstrates the left lung B. Chest obliques require body rotation of 60 C. The RAO best demonstrates the left lung D. Respiration should be suspended on the first full expiration 86
Which statement is true regarding routine oblique positions for chest radiography? A. The LAO best demonstrates the left lung B. Chest obliques require body rotation of 60 C. The RAO best demonstrates the left lung D. Respiration should be suspended on the first full expiration 87
What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as generalized blurring of the entire image? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 88
What is the most probable source for the radiographic artifact which appears as generalized blurring of the entire image? A. Patient effects B. Film handling or storage C. Processor transport system D. Effects related to cassette or screen 89
What action should be taken if results of a quality control procedure do not meet minimum standards? A. Call in a service engineer B. Inform the chief radiologist C. Record the results for future reference D. Repeat the quality control procedure 90
What action should be taken if results of a quality control procedure do not meet minimum standards? A. Call in a service engineer B. Inform the chief radiologist C. Record the results for future reference D. Repeat the quality control procedure Repeat the test to ensure the results are due what is being evaluated and not to the way in which the procedure Kawamura was performed. RADT 2913 (Item Set I) 91
The composition of the intervertebral disk includes A. A solid structure of hyaline membrane B. a cartilaginous center surrounded by a soft gelatinous exterior C. a soft, highly elastic center surrounded by a fibrocartilaginous exterior D. alternating layers of fibrocartilaginous rings and soft, highly elastic interspace material 92
The composition of the intervertebral disk includes A. A solid structure of hyaline membrane B. a cartilaginous center surrounded by a soft gelatinous exterior C. a soft, highly elastic center surrounded by a fibrocartilaginous exterior D. alternating layers of fibrocartilaginous rings and soft, highly elastic interspace material 93
Which test tool do you use to evaluate film-screen contact? A. Dosimeter B. Wire mesh C. Star resolution pattern D. Wisconsin test cassette 94
Which test tool do you use to evaluate film-screen contact? A. Dosimeter B. Wire mesh C. Star resolution pattern D. Wisconsin test cassette 95
The L-shaped bone located posterior to the nasal cavity is the: A. nasal conchae B. zygomatic C. palatine D. maxilla 96
The L-shaped bone located posterior to the nasal cavity is the: A. nasal conchae B. zygomatic C. palatine D. maxilla 97
What is the most appropriate way for a radiographer to communicate with a patient with hearing loss? A. Request an interpreter B. Increase both the pitch and volume of speech C. Look directly at the patient when speaking D. Talk as little as possible as the patient will not be able to understand anyway 98
What is the most appropriate way for a radiographer to communicate with a patient with hearing loss? A. Request an interpreter B. Increase both the pitch and volume of speech C. Look directly at the patient when speaking D. Talk as little as possible as the patient will not be able to understand anyway 99
What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is a decrease in SID? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 100
What is the best adjustment in exposure factor when there is a decrease in SID? A. Increase milliampere-seconds only B. Decrease milliampere-seconds only C. Increase milliampere-seconds; decrease kilovoltage D. Decrease milliampere-seconds; increase kilovoltage 101
Life is not measured by the number of breaths we take but by the moments that take our breath away. 102