General 2015 lass Question Pool G1: OMMISSION'S RULES G1: - General lass control operator frequency privileges; primary and secondary allocations G101 On which of the following bands is a General lass license holder granted all amateur frequency privileges? 160, 60, 30, 17, 12, and 10 meters G102 On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited? 30 meters G103 On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited? 30 meters G104 Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication on only specific channels, rather than frequency ranges? 60 meters G105 Which of the following frequencies is in the General lass portion of the 40-meter band? 7.250 MHz G106 Which of the following frequencies is within the General lass portion of the 75-meter phone band? 3900 khz G107 Which of the following frequencies is within the General lass portion of the 20-meter phone band? 14305 khz G108 Which of the following frequencies is within the General lass portion of the 80-meter band? 3560 khz G109 Which of the following frequencies is within the General lass portion of the 15-meter band? 21300 khz G110 Which of the following frequencies is available to a control operator holding a General lass license? ll of these choices are correct G111 When General lass licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a particular band, which portion of the voice segment is generally available to them? The upper frequency end G112 Which of the following applies when the F rules designate the mateur Service as a secondary user on a band? mateur stations are allowed to use the band only if they do not cause harmful interference to primary users G113 What is the appropriate action if, when operating on either the 30- or 60- meter bands, a station in the primary service interferes with your contact? Move to a clear frequency or stop transmitting G114 In what ITU region is operation in the 7.175 to 7.300 MHz band permitted for a control operator holding an F issued General lass license? Region 2
G1: - ntenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur practice; beacon operation; prohibited transmissions; retransmitting radio signals G101 What is the maximum height above ground to which an antenna structure may be erected without requiring notification to the F and registration with the F, provided it is not at or near a public use airport? 200 feet G102 With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply? There must be no more than one beacon signal transmitting in the same band from the same station location G103 Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the F rules? Observation of propagation and reception G104 Which of the following must be true before amateur stations may provide communications to broadcasters for dissemination to the public? The communications must directly relate to the immediate safety of human life or protection of property and there must be no other means of communication reasonably available before or at the time of the event G105 When may music be transmitted by an amateur station? When it is an incidental part of a manned space craft retransmission G106 When is an amateur station permitted to transmit secret codes? To control a space station G107 What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the mateur Service? They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message G108 When choosing a transmitting frequency, what should you do to comply with good amateur practice? ll of these choices are correct G109 When may an amateur station transmit communications in which the licensee or control operator has a pecuniary (monetary) interest? When other amateurs are being notified of the sale of apparatus normally used in an amateur station and such activity is not done on a regular basis G110 What is the power limit for beacon stations? 100 watts PEP output G111 How does the F require an amateur station to be operated in all respects not specifically covered by the Part 97 rules? In conformance with good engineering and good amateur practice G112 Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules? The F
G1: - Transmitter power regulations; data emission standards G101 What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz? 200 watts PEP output G102 What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band? 1500 watts PEP output G103 What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by F rules for mateur Radio stations transmitting on US frequencies in the 60-meter band? 2.8 khz G104 Which of the following limitations apply to transmitter power on every amateur band? Only the minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications should be used G105 Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General lass control operator? 1500 watts PEP output G106 Which of the following is a limitation on transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band? 1500 watts PEP output G107 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmission on the 20-meter band? 300 baud G108 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted at frequencies below 28 MHz? 300 baud G109 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmitted on the 1.25-meter and 70-centimeter bands? 56 kilobaud G110 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 10-meter band? 1200 baud G111 What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission transmissions on the 2-meter band? 19.6 kilobaud
G1: - Volunteer Examiners and Volunteer Examiner oordinators; temporary identification G101 Who may receive credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license? ny person who can demonstrate that they once held a F issued General, dvanced, or mateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the F G102 What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE holding a General lass operator license? Technician only G103 On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician lass operator and have a SE for General lass privileges? On any General or Technician lass band segment G104 Which of the following is a requirement for administering a Technician lass license examination? t least three General lass or higher VEs must observe the examination G105 Which of the following must a person have before they can be an administering VE for a Technician lass license examination? n F General lass or higher license and VE accreditation G106 When must you add the special identifier "G" after your call sign if you are a Technician lass licensee and have a SE for General lass operator privileges, but the F has not yet posted your upgrade on its website? Whenever you operate using General lass frequency privileges G107 Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization? Volunteer Examiner oordinator G108 Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-u.s. citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner? The person must hold an F granted mateur Radio license of General lass or above G109 How long is a ertificate of Successful ompletion of Examination (SE) valid for exam element credit? 365 days G110 What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner? 18 years G111 If a person has an expired F issued amateur radio license of General lass or higher, what is required before they can receive a new license? The applicant must pass the current element 2 exam
G1E: - ontrol categories; repeater regulations; harmful interference; third party rules; ITU regions; automatically controlled digital station G1E01 Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in stating a message over an amateur station? The third party s amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated G1E02 When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station having a Technician lass control operator? Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General lass license G1E03 What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments? The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control G1E04 Which of the following conditions require a licensed mateur Radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities? ll of these choices are correct G1E05 What types of messages for a third party in another country may be transmitted by an amateur station? Only messages relating to mateur Radio or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief G1E06 Which of the following applies in the event of interference between a coordinated repeater and an uncoordinated repeater? The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater has primary responsibility to resolve the interference G1E07 With which foreign countries is third party traffic prohibited, except for messages directly involving emergencies or disaster relief communications? Every foreign country, unless there is a third party agreement in effect with that country G1E08 Which of the following is a requirement for a non-licensed person to communicate with a foreign mateur Radio station from a station with an F-granted license at which an F licensed control operator is present? The foreign amateur station must be in a country with which the United States has a third party agreement G1E09 What language must be used when identifying your station if you are using a language other than English in making a contact using phone emission? English only G1E10 What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use? The portion above 29.6 MHz G1E11 Which of the following is the F term for an unattended digital station that transfers messages to and from the Internet? utomatically controlled digital station G1E12 Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third party rules that apply to other modes of communication? Under no circumstances
G1E13 On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations? nywhere in the 1.25 meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in specified segments of the 80-meter through 2-meter bands
G2: OPERTING PROEURES G2: - Phone operating procedures; US/LS conventions; procedural signals; breaking into a contact; VOX operation G201 Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher? Upper sideband G202 Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands? Lower sideband G203 Which of the following is most commonly used for SS voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands? Upper sideband G204 Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands? Upper sideband G205 Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands? Single sideband G206 Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands? Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency G207 Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode? Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed G208 Which of the following is a recommended way to break into a contact when using phone? Say your call sign during a break between transmissions by the other stations G209 Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter and 40-meter bands? urrent amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency bands G210 Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation? It allows "hands free" operation G211 What does the expression "Q X" usually indicate? The caller is looking for any station outside their own country
G2: - Operating courtesy; band plans; emergencies, including drills and emergency communications G201 Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations? Except during F declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies G202 What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in? cknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed G203 If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do? s a common courtesy, move your contact to another frequency G204 When selecting a W transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies? 150 to 500 Hz G205 What is the customary minimum frequency separation between SS signals under normal conditions? pproximately 3 khz G206 What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling Q on W or phone? Send "QRL?" on W, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign G207 Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call? Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use G208 What is the "X window" in a voluntary band plan? portion of the band that should not be used for contacts between stations within the 48 contiguous United States G209 Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RES to assist relief operations during a disaster? Only a person holding an F issued amateur operator license G210 When may the F restrict normal frequency operations of amateur stations participating in RES? When the President s War Emergency Powers have been invoked G211 What frequency should be used to send a distress call? Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message G212 When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress? t any time during an actual emergency
G2: - W operating procedures and procedural signals; Q signals and common abbreviations: full break in G201 Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)? Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements G202 What should you do if a W station sends "QRS"? Send slower G203 What does it mean when a W operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission? Listening only for a specific station or stations G204 What does the Q signal "QRL?" mean? "re you busy?", or "Is this frequency in use?" G205 What is the best speed to use when answering a Q in Morse code? The speed at which the Q was sent G206 What does the term "zero beat" mean in W operation? Matching your transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal. G207 When sending W, what does a "" mean when added to the RST report? hirpy or unstable signal G208 What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using W? R G209 What does the Q signal "QSL" mean? I acknowledge receipt G210 What does the Q signal "QRN" mean? I am troubled by static G211 What does the Q signal "QRV" mean? I am ready to receive messages
G2: - mateur uxiliary; minimizing interference; HF operations G201 What is the mateur uxiliary to the F? mateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations G202 Which of the following are objectives of the mateur uxiliary? To encourage self-regulation and compliance with the rules by radio amateur operators G203 What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the mateur uxiliary? irection finding used to locate stations violating F Rules G204 Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map? map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location G205 When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal ommunications ommission? When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications G206 How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station? 180 degrees from its short-path heading G207 Which of the following is required by the F rules when operating in the 60-meter band? If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna G208 What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log? To help with a reply if the F requests information G209 What information is traditionally contained in a station log? ll of these choices are correct G210 What is QRP operation? Low power transmit operation G211 Which HF antenna would be the best to use for minimizing interference? directional antenna
G2E: - igital operating: procedures, procedural signals and common abbreviations G2E01 Which mode is normally used when sending an RTTY signal via FSK with an SS transmitter? LS G2E02 How can a PTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PTOR stations? Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection G2E03 What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PTOR or WINMOR transmission? ll of these choices are correct G2E04 What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions? 14.070-14.100 MHz G2E06 What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands? 170 Hz G2E07 What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions? 3570-3600 khz G2E08 In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found? elow the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz G2E09 How do you join a contact between two stations using the PTOR protocol? Joining an existing contact is not possible, PTOR connections are limited to two stations G2E10 Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station? Transmit a connect message on the station s published frequency G2E11 What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines adjacent to a PSK31 signal? Overmodulation G2E12 Which of the following describes a waterfall display? Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical G2E13 Which communication system sometimes uses the Internet to transfer messages? Winlink G2E14 What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly? ll of these choices are correct G2E15 What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65 or JT9 digital signal when using FSK in any amateur band? US
G3: RIO WVE PROPGTION G3: - Sunspots and solar radiation; ionospheric disturbances; propagation forecasting and indices G301 What is the significance of the sunspot number with regard to HF propagation? Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies G302 What effect does a Sudden Ionospheric isturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies G303 pproximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar flares to affect radio propagation on the Earth? 8 minutes G304 Which of the following are least reliable for long distance communications during periods of low solar activity? 15 meters, 12 meters and 10 meters G305 What is the solar flux index? measure of solar radiation at 10.7 centimeters wavelength G306 What is a geomagnetic storm? temporary disturbance in the Earth's magnetosphere G307 t what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours? t any point in the solar cycle G308 Which of the following effects can a geomagnetic storm have on radio propagation? egraded high-latitude HF propagation G309 What effect does a high sunspot number have on radio communications? Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is enhanced G310 What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 28 day cycle? The Sun s rotation on its axis G311 pproximately how long is the typical sunspot cycle? 11 years G312 What does the K-index indicate? The short term stability of the Earth s magnetic field G313 What does the -index indicate? The long term stability of the Earth s geomagnetic field G314 How are radio communications usually affected by the charged particles that reach the Earth from solar coronal holes? HF communications are disturbed
G315 How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections to affect radio propagation on the Earth? 20 to 40 hours G316 What is a possible benefit to radio communications resulting from periods of high geomagnetic activity? uroras that can reflect VHF signals
G3: - Maximum Usable Frequency; Lowest Usable Frequency; propagation G301 How might a sky-wave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short path and long path propagation? well-defined echo might be heard G302 Which of the following is a good indicator of the possibility of sky-wave propagation on the 6-meter band? Short skip sky-wave propagation on the 10-meter band G303 Which of the following applies when selecting a frequency for lowest attenuation when transmitting on HF? Select a frequency just below the MUF G304 What is a reliable way to determine if the MUF is high enough to support skip propagation between your station and a distant location on frequencies between 14 and 30 MHz? Listen for signals from an international beacon in the frequency range you plan to use G305 What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF when they are sent into the ionosphere? They are bent back to the Earth G306 What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF? They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere G307 What does LUF stand for? The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two points G308 What does MUF stand for? The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points G309 What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? 2,500 miles G310 What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region? 1,200 miles G311 What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF? No HF radio frequency will support ordinary sky-wave communications over the path G312 What factor or factors affect the MUF? ll of these choices are correct
G3: - Ionospheric layers; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter; Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave G301 Which ionospheric layer is closest to the surface of the Earth? The layer G302 Where on the Earth do ionospheric layers reach their maximum height? Where the Sun is overhead G303 Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio wave propagation? ecause it is the highest ionospheric region G304 What does the term "critical angle" mean as used in radio wave propagation? The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the Earth under specific ionospheric conditions G305 Why is long distance communication on the 40-meter, 60-meter, 80-meter and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day? The layer absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours G306 What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals? They have a wavering sound G307 What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different radio wave paths G308 Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak? Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone G309 What type of radio wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a distance too far for ground wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation? Scatter G310 Which of the following might be an indication that signals heard on the HF bands are being received via scatter propagation? The signal is heard on a frequency above the Maximum Usable Frequency G311 Which of the following antenna types will be most effective for skip communications on 40-meters during the day? horizontal dipole placed between 1/8 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground G312 Which ionospheric layer is the most absorbent of long skip signals during daylight hours on frequencies below 10 MHz? The layer G313 What is Near Vertical Incidence Sky-wave (NVIS) propagation? Short distance MF or HF propagation using high elevation angles
G4: MTEUR RIO PRTIES G4: - Station Operation and set up G401 What is the purpose of the "notch filter" found on many HF transceivers? To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband G402 What is one advantage of selecting the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving W signals on a typical HF transceiver? It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals G403 What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in "split" mode? The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies G404 What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control? pronounced dip G405 What is a reason to use utomatic Level ontrol (L) with an RF power amplifier? To reduce distortion due to excessive drive G406 What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms? ntenna coupler or antenna tuner G407 What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier? Excessive drive power G408 What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier? Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current G409 Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit? To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed G410 What is the purpose of an electronic keyer? utomatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for W operation G411 Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver? To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency G412 Which of the following is a common use for the dual VFO feature on a transceiver? To permit monitoring of two different frequencies G413 What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers? To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals G414 What is likely to happen if a transceiver s L system is not set properly when transmitting FSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode? Improper action of L distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions G415 Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying FSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver? ll of these choices are correct
G4: - Test and monitoring equipment; two-tone test G401 What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers? n oscilloscope G402 Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter? omplex waveforms can be measured G403 Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a W transmitter? n oscilloscope G404 What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal? The attenuated RF output of the transmitter G405 Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter? It decreases the loading on circuits being measured G406 What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter? etter precision for most uses G407 What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test? Two non-harmonically related audio signals G408 Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments? field strength meter G409 Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter? The radiation pattern of an antenna G410 Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter? Standing wave ratio G411 Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements? ntenna and feed line G412 What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer? Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements G413 What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system? etermining the impedance of an unknown or unmarked coaxial cable G414 What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout? When adjusting tuned circuits G415 What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze? Linearity
G4: - Interference with consumer electronics; grounding; SP G401 Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices? ypass capacitor G402 Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies? rcing at a poor electrical connection G403 What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter? istorted speech G404 What is the effect on an audio device or telephone system if there is interference from a nearby W transmitter? On-and-off humming or clicking G405 What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod? The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency G406 What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection? High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment G407 What is one good way to avoid unwanted effects of stray RF energy in an amateur station? onnect all equipment grounds together G408 Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable? Placing a ferrite choke around the cable G409 How can a ground loop be avoided? onnect all ground conductors to a single point G410 What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station? You receive reports of "hum" on your station's transmitted signal G411 Which of the following is a function of a digital signal processor? To remove noise from received signals G412 Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver SP IF filter as compared to an analog filter? wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created G413 Which of the following can perform automatic notching of interfering carriers? igital Signal Processor (SP) filter
G4: - Speech processors; S meters; sideband operation near band edges G401 What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver? Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions G402 Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal? It increases average power G403 Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor? ll of these choices are correct G404 What does an S meter measure? Received signal strength G405 How does a signal that reads 20 d over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter? It is 100 times more powerful G406 Where is an S meter found? In a receiver G407 How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9? pproximately 4 times G408 What frequency range is occupied by a 3 khz LS signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz? 7.175 to 7.178 MHz G409 What frequency range is occupied by a 3 khz US signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz? 14.347 to 14.350 MHz G410 How close to the lower edge of the 40-meter General lass phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 khz wide LS? t least 3 khz above the edge of the segment G411 How close to the upper edge of the 20-meter General lass band should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 khz wide US? t least 3 khz below the edge of the band
G4E: - HF mobile radio installations; emergency and battery powered operation G4E01 What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna? To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna G4E02 What is the purpose of a corona ball on a HF mobile antenna? To reduce high voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna G4E03 Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation? To the battery using heavy gauge wire G4E04 Why is it best NOT to draw the power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle s auxiliary power socket? The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver G4E05 Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile transceiver operating in the 75-meter band? The antenna system G4E06 What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full size antenna? Operating bandwidth may be very limited G4E07 Which of the following may cause interference to be heard in the receiver of an HF radio installed in a recent model vehicle? ll of these choices are correct G4E08 What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity? Photovoltaic conversion G4E09 What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell? 0.5 V G4E10 What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel? The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination G4E11 Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station? large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
G5: ELETRIL PRINIPLES G5: - Reactance; inductance; capacitance; impedance; impedance matching G501 What is impedance? The opposition to the flow of current in an circuit G502 What is reactance? Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance G503 Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor? Reactance G504 Which of the following causes opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor? Reactance G505 How does an inductor react to? s the frequency of the applied increases, the reactance increases G506 How does a capacitor react to? s the frequency of the applied increases, the reactance decreases G507 What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the output impedance of a power source, assuming both impedances are resistive? The source can deliver maximum power to the load G508 Why is impedance matching important? So the source can deliver maximum power to the load G509 What unit is used to measure reactance? Ohm G510 What unit is used to measure impedance? Ohm G511 Which of the following describes one method of impedance matching between two circuits? Insert an L network between the two circuits G512 What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer? To maximize the transfer of power G513 Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies? ll of these choices are correct
G5: - The ecibel; current and voltage dividers; electrical power calculations; sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) values; PEP calculations G501 What d change represents a two-times increase or decrease in power? pproximately 3 d G502 How does the total current relate to the individual currents in each branch of a purely resistive parallel circuit? It equals the sum of the currents through each branch G503 How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 V is supplied to an 800 ohm load? 200 watts G504 How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 V light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes? 2.4 watts G505 How many watts are dissipated when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through 1.25 kilohms resistance? pproximately 61 milliwatts G506 What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm dummy load connected to the transmitter output? 100 watts G507 What value of an signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a voltage of the same value? The RMS value G508 What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 volts? 338.4 volts G509 What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak? 12 volts G510 What percentage of power loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 d? 20.5 percent G511 What is the ratio of peak envelope power to average power for an unmodulated carrier? 1.00 G512 What would be the RMS voltage across a 50 ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts? 245 volts G513 What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if an average reading wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts? 1060 watts G514 What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50 ohm resistive load connected to the transmitter output? 625 watts
G5: - Resistors, capacitors, and inductors in series and parallel; transformers G501 What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an voltage source is connected across its primary winding? Mutual inductance G502 What happens if you reverse the primary and secondary windings of a 4:1 voltage step down transformer? The secondary voltage becomes 4 times the primary voltage G503 Which of the following components should be added to an existing resistor to increase the resistance? resistor in series G504 What is the total resistance of three 100 ohm resistors in parallel? 33.3 ohms G505 If three equal value resistors in series produce 450 ohms, what is the value of each resistor? 150 ohms G506 What is the RMS voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 V? 26.7 volts G507 What is the turns ratio of a transformer used to match an audio amplifier having 600 ohm output impedance to a speaker having 4 ohm impedance? 12.2 to 1 G508 What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0 nanofarad capacitors and one 750 picofarad capacitor connected in parallel? 10.750 nanofarads G509 What is the capacitance of three 100 microfarad capacitors connected in series? 33.3 microfarads G510 What is the inductance of three 10 millihenry inductors connected in parallel? 3.3 millihenrys G511 What is the inductance of a 20 millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50 millihenry inductor? 70 millihenrys G512 What is the capacitance of a 20 microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50 microfarad capacitor? 14.3 microfarads G513 Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance? capacitor in parallel G514 Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance? n inductor in series G515 What is the total resistance of a 10 ohm, a 20 ohm, and a 50 ohm resistor connected in parallel? 5.9 ohms
G516 Why is the conductor of the primary winding of many voltage step up transformers larger in diameter than the conductor of the secondary winding? To accommodate the higher current of the primary G517 What is the value in nanofarads (nf) of a 22,000 pf capacitor? 22 nf G518 What is the value in microfarads of a 4700 nanofarad (nf) capacitor? 4.7 µf
G6: IRUIT OMPONENTS G6: - Resistors; apacitors; Inductors; Rectifiers; solid state diodes and transistors; vacuum tubes; batteries G601 What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12 volt lead acid battery? 10.5 volts G602 What is an advantage of the low internal resistance of nickel-cadmium batteries? High discharge current G603 What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a germanium diode? 0.3 volts G604 When is it acceptable to recharge a carbon-zinc primary cell? Never G605 What is the approximate junction threshold voltage of a conventional silicon diode? 0.7 volts G606 Which of the following is an advantage of using a Schottky diode in an RF switching circuit rather than a standard silicon diode? Lower capacitance G607 What are the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch in a logic circuit? Its saturation and cutoff regions G608 Why must the cases of some large power transistors be insulated from ground? To avoid shorting the collector or drain voltage to ground G609 Which of the following describes the construction of a MOSFET? The gate is separated from the channel with a thin insulating layer G610 Which element of a triode vacuum tube is used to regulate the flow of electrons between cathode and plate? ontrol grid G611 Which of the following solid state devices is most like a vacuum tube in its general operating characteristics? field effect transistor G612 What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube? To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance G613 Why is the polarity of applied voltages important for polarized capacitors? ll of these choices are correct G614 Which of the following is an advantage of ceramic capacitors as compared to other types of capacitors? omparatively low cost G615 Which of the following is an advantage of an electrolytic capacitor? High capacitance for a given volume
G616 What will happen to the resistance if the temperature of a resistor is increased? It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient G617 Which of the following is a reason not to use wire-wound resistors in an RF circuit? The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable G618 What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor? ll of these choices are correct G619 How should the winding axes of two solenoid inductors be oriented to minimize their mutual inductance? t right angles to each other
G6: - nalog and digital integrated circuits (Is); microprocessors; memory; I/O devices; microwave Is (MMIs); display devices G601 Which of the following is an analog integrated circuit? Linear voltage regulator G602 What is meant by the term MMI? Monolithic Microwave Integrated ircuit G603 Which of the following is an advantage of MOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits? Low power consumption G604 What is meant by the term ROM? Read Only Memory G605 What is meant when memory is characterized as non-volatile? The stored information is maintained even if power is removed G606 What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier? nalog G607 Which of the following is an advantage of an LE indicator compared to an incandescent indicator? ll of these choices are correct G608 How is an LE biased when emitting light? Forward iased G609 Which of the following is a characteristic of a liquid crystal display? It requires ambient or back lighting G610 What two devices in an mateur Radio station might be connected using a US interface? omputer and transceiver G611 What is a microprocessor? computer on a single integrated circuit G612 Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port? E-9 G613 Which of these connector types is commonly used for RF connections at frequencies up to 150 MHz? PL-259 G614 Which of these connector types is commonly used for audio signals in mateur Radio stations? R Phono G615 What is the main reason to use keyed connectors instead of non-keyed types? Reduced chance of incorrect mating G616 Which of the following describes a type N connector? moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
G617 What is the general description of a IN type connector? family of multiple circuit connectors suitable for audio and control signals G618 What is a type SM connector? small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
G7: PRTIL IRUITS G7: Power supplies; and schematic symbols G701 What useful feature does a power supply bleeder resistor provide? It ensures that the filter capacitors are discharged when power is removed G702 Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network? apacitors and inductors G703 What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifiers in a full-wave bridge power supply? Equal to the normal peak output voltage of the power supply G704 What is the peak-inverse-voltage across the rectifier in a half-wave power supply? Two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply G705 What portion of the cycle is converted to by a half-wave rectifier? 180 degrees G706 What portion of the cycle is converted to by a full-wave rectifier? 360 degrees G707 What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load? series of pulses at twice the frequency of the input G708 Which of the following is an advantage of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply? High frequency operation allows the use of smaller components G709 Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor? (view image) Symbol 1 G710 Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode? (view image) Symbol 5 G711 Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor? (view image) Symbol 2 G712 Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a multiple-winding transformer? (view image) Symbol 6 G713 Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor? (view image) Symbol 7
G7: - igital circuits; amplifiers and oscillators G701 omplex digital circuitry can often be replaced by what type of integrated circuit? Microcontroller G702 Which of the following is an advantage of using the binary system when processing digital signals? inary "ones" and "zeros" are easy to represent by an "on" or "off" state G703 Which of the following describes the function of a two input N gate? Output is high only when both inputs are high G704 Which of the following describes the function of a two input NOR gate? Output is low when either or both inputs are high G705 How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have? 8 G706 What is a shift register? clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array G707 What are the basic components of virtually all sine wave oscillators? filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop G708 How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined? ivide the RF output power by the input power G709 What determines the frequency of an L oscillator? The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit G710 Which of the following is a characteristic of a lass amplifier? Low distortion G711 For which of the following modes is a lass power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal? W G712 Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency? lass G713 What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a transmitter? To eliminate self-oscillations G714 Which of the following describes a linear amplifier? n amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
G7: - Receivers and transmitters; filters, oscillators G701 Which of the following is used to process signals from the balanced modulator then send them to the mixer in some single sideband phone transmitters? Filter G702 Which circuit is used to combine signals from the carrier oscillator and speech amplifier then send the result to the filter in some single sideband phone transmitters? alanced modulator G703 What circuit is used to process signals from the RF amplifier and local oscillator then send the result to the IF filter in a superheterodyne receiver? Mixer G704 What circuit is used to combine signals from the IF amplifier and FO and send the result to the F amplifier in some single sideband receivers? Product detector G705 Which of the following is an advantage of a transceiver controlled by a direct digital synthesizer (S)? Variable frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator G706 What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted? bout the same G707 What is the simplest combination of stages that implement a superheterodyne receiver? HF oscillator, mixer, detector G708 What type of circuit is used in many FM receivers to convert signals coming from the IF amplifier to audio? iscriminator G709 Which of the following is needed for a igital Signal Processor IF filter? ll of the these choices are correct G710 How is igital Signal Processor filtering accomplished? y converting the signal from analog to digital and using digital processing G711 What is meant by the term "software defined radio" (SR)? radio in which most major signal processing functions are performed by software
G8: SIGNLS N EMISSIONS G8: - arriers and modulation: M; FM; single sideband; modulation envelope; digital modulation; overmodulation G801 How is an FSK signal generated? y changing an oscillator s frequency directly with a digital control signal G802 What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF wave to convey information? Phase modulation G803 What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information? Frequency modulation G804 What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage? Phase modulation G805 What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal? mplitude modulation G806 What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a single sideband phone transmission versus full carrier amplitude modulation? vailable transmitter power can be used more effectively G807 Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth? Single sideband G808 Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation? Excessive bandwidth G809 What control is typically adjusted for proper L setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver? Transmit audio or microphone gain G810 What is meant by the term flat-topping when referring to a single sideband phone transmission? Signal distortion caused by excessive drive G811 What is the modulation envelope of an M signal? The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal