1 Amateur radio basic qualification workbook 2016 including the Canadian December 2014 Basic Question Bank. Basic Hamwork 1

Transcription

1 Basic Hamwork 1 1 Amateur radio basic qualification workbook 2016 including the Canadian December 2014 Basic Question Bank. This workbook was compiled in December 2015 by VA7FWA of the Campbell River Amateur Radio Society (CRARS) and is a free.pdf download from the society website: ve7crc.org. Printed copies are occasionally available for purchase from CRARS. For non-profit use only Permission is granted for use by individuals for home study and by volunteer instructors engaged in teaching amateur radio courses. Any reproduction should acknowledge CRARS right of ownership. How to use the Workbook The workbook deals only with the content of the exam questions and is not a comprehensive textbook. Research has shown that information retention by students can be as low as 20% on first reading of textbooks. The retention rates jump to 80% when reading is immediately followed by a quiz on the subject just studied. The workbook is intended for use in this way with the free ExHaminer computer program. ExHaminer does not require internet connection after installation on your computer or flash drive. It works on Windows computers and can be run on Macs by using a Windows emulation program such as Winebottler. See page 97 for instructions on downloading and using ExHaminer. The Question Bank, which starts on page 48, contains all the questions (some in abbreviated form) from which the 100 exam questions are selected. All questions are numbered and it is advisable to seek advice on any you do not understand. If you cannot get local advice you may wallace@pacificcoast.net This address also can be used to report any errors or omissions. The workbook is arranged in sections corresponding to the sections in the exam question bank at the back. This is not a logical learning sequence so you should follow the study sequence given in the Lesson Plans page 96 at the end of the workbook, which corresponds to those used in ExHaminer. If you do not have access to a computer running ExHaminer you may use the workbook as a stand-alone resource as follows: Students should check the Question page number given at the top of each text section and go to the questions after each section or at least after every question bank page. Fold a blank sheet of paper in four lengthwise and use it to cover the the answers on the edge of the question bank page. As you answer the questions write the answer letters on the edge of the blank sheet against each answer. After finishing a question page correctly, fold the sheet again to give a fresh edge for the next page. The symbol at the edges of the pages indicates the bottom of a question bank page. Passages in italic are for background information and generally are not directly related to questions in the bank. Some pages are tagged Explanatory and these also are not directly related to the question bank. After passing the exam there is a great deal more to be learned about ham radio and much can be picked up from experienced hams and from the internet. The Basic Exam is 100 multiple choice questions which must be downloaded from the Industry Canada Website by a qualified examiner and administered in person. Pass mark on the exam is 70% but 80% gives you entry to HF for worldwide communications and students are advised to delay sitting the exam until they consistently get well over 80% on practice exams. Practice exams can also be done on the Industry Canada website but Exhaminer is preferable since it keeps track of your overall progress and can be tailored to work on specific sections. 73, VA7FWA

2 2 Basic Qualification Examination breakdown of exam questions from RIC-3 Chapter 1 Regulations and Policies - 25 exam questions Page radio licences, applicability, eligibility of licence holder 1-2 licence fee, term, posting requirements, change of address 1-3 licence suspension or revocation, powers of radio inspectors, offences and punishments 1-4 operator certificates, applicability, eligibility, equivalents, reciprocal recognition 1-5 operation, repair and maintenance of radio apparatus on behalf of other persons 1-6 operation of radio apparatus, terms of licence, applicable standards, exempt apparatus 1-7 content restrictions - non-superfluous, profanity, secret code, music, non-commercial 1-8 installation and operating restrictions - number of stations, repeaters, home-built, club stations 1-9 participation in communications by visitors, use of station by others 1-10 interference, determination, protection from interference 1-11 emergency communications (real or simulated), communication with non-amateur stations 1-12 non-remuneration, privacy of communications 1-13 station identification, call signs, prefixes 1-14 foreign amateur operation in Canada, banned countries, third-party messages 1-15 frequency bands and qualification requirements 1-16 maximum bandwidth by frequency bands 1-17 restrictions on capacity and power output by qualifications 1-18 unmodulated carriers, retransmission 1-19 amplitude modulation, frequency stability, measurements 1-20 International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Radio Regulations, applicability 1-21 operation outside Canada, ITU regions, reciprocal privileges, international licences 1-22 examinations - Department=s fees, delegated examinations, fees, disabled accommodation 1-23 antenna structure approval, neighbour and land-use authority consultation 1-24 radio frequency electromagnetic field limits 1-25 criteria for resolution of radio frequency interference complaints Chapter 2 Operating and Procedures - 9 exam questions Page voice operating procedures - channelized VHF/UHF repeater 2-2 phonetic alphabet 2-3 voice operating procedures - simplex VHF/UHF and HF 2-4 tuneups and testing, use of dummy load, courteous operation 2-5 Morse code (CW) operating procedures, procedural signs 2-6 RST system of signal reporting, use of S meter 2-7 Q signals 2-8 emergency operating procedures 2-9 record keeping, confirmation practices, maps/charts, antenna orientation Chapter 3 Station Assembly, Practice and Safety - 21 exam questions Page functional layout of HF stations 3-2 functional layout of FM transmitters 3-3 functional layout of FM receivers 3-4 functional layout of CW transmitters 3-5 functional layout of SSB/CW receivers 3-6 functional layout of SSB transmitters 3-7 functional layout of digital systems 3-8 functional layout of regulated power supplies 3-9 functional layout of Yagi-Uda antennas 3-10 receiver fundamentals 3-11 transmitter, carrier, keying, and amplitude modulation fundamentals 3-12 carrier suppression, SSB fundamentals 3-13 frequency and phase modulation fundamentals 3-14 station accessories for telegraphy, radiotelephony, digital modes 3-15 digital mode fundamentals (RTTY, ASCII, AMTOR, packet) 3-16 cells and batteries, types, ratings, charging 3-17 power supply fundamentals 3-18 electrical hazards, electrical safety, security 3-19 electrical safety ground, capacitor discharge, fuse replacement 3-20 antenna and tower safety, lightning protection 3-21 exposure of human body to RF, safety precautions

3 Basic Qualification Examination breakdown of exam questions from RIC-3 3 Chapter 4 Circuit Components - 6 exam questions Page amplifier fundamentals 4-2 diode fundamentals 4-3 bipolar transistor fundamentals 4-4 field-effect transistor fundamentals 4-5 triode vacuum tube fundamentals 4-6 resistor colour codes, tolerances, temperature coefficient Chapter 5 Basic Electronics and Theory - 13 exam questions Page metric prefixes - pico, micro, milli, centi, kilo, mega, giga 5-2 concepts of current, voltage, conductor, insulator, resistance 5-3 concepts of energy and power, open and short circuits 5-4 Ohms law- single resistors 5-5 series and parallel resistors 5-6 power law, resistor power dissipation 5-7 AC, sinewave, frequency, frequency units 5-8 ratios, logarithms, decibels 5-9 introduction to inductance, capacitance 5-10 introduction to reactance, impedance 5-11 introduction to magnetics, transformers 5-12 introduction to resonance, tuned circuits 5-13 introduction to meters and measurements Chapter 6 Feedlines and Antenna Systems -13 exam questions Page feed line characteristics, characteristic impedance 6-2 balanced and unbalanced feed lines, baluns 6-3 popular antenna feed line and coaxial connector types 6-4 line losses by line type, length and frequency 6-5 standing waves, standing wave ratio, SWR meter 6-6 concept of impedance matching 6-7 isotropic source, polarization via element orientation 6-8 wavelength vs physical length 6-9 gain, directivity, radiation pattern, antenna bandwidth 6-10 vertical antennas - types, dimensions, characteristics 6-11 Yagi antennas - types, dimensions, characteristics 6-12 wire antennas - types, dimensions, characteristics 6-13 quad/loop antennas - types, dimensions, characteristics Chapter 7 Radio Wave Propagation - 8 exam questions Page line of sight, ground wave, ionospheric wave (sky wave) 7-2 ionosphere, ionospheric regions (layers) 7-3 propagation hops, skip zone, skip distance 7-4 ionospheric absorption, causes and variation, fading, phase shift, Faraday rotation 7-5 solar activity, sunspots, sunspot cycle 7-6 MF and HF, critical and maximum useable frequencies, solar flux 7-7 VHF and UHF, sporadic-e, aurora, ducting 7-8 scatter - HF, VHF, UHF Chapter 8 Interference and Suppression - 5 exam questions Page front-end overload, cross-modulation 8-2 audio rectification, bypass capacitors, ferrites 8-3 intermodulation, spurious, key-clicks 8-4 harmonics, splatter, transmitter adjustments 8-5 use of filters: low-pass, high-pass, band-pass, band-reject

4 4 Chapter One Regulations & Policies Radio Authority B Q Page 48 Exhaminer L1 The Radio Communications Act : States the offences and penalties for non compliance. Is the Authority for: Standards for Operation of Amateur Radio Stations:. "Radio Communication Regulations" in which the The Amateur Radio Service is defined. Administration of the Radio Communications Act is the responsibility of Industry Canada. Note; Since the 2015 election the lead portfolio for Industry Canada will be held by the Minister for Innovation, Science and Economic Development, Canada. Licences B Q Page 48 Exhaminer L1 Amateur Radio Operator Certificates should be: retained at the address notified to Industry Canada. They are valid for life. Industry Canada must be advised of any change in postal address. The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is free. A Radio Authorization, or a copy, shall be shown by the holder to a Radio Inspector at his request within 48 hours of the request being made Out of amateur band transmissions are prohibited - penalties could be assessed to the control operator. Licence offences & punishments B Q Page 48 Exhaminer L1 The Radiocommunications Act states the offences and punishments for non-compliance with the radiocommunication rules False or Deceptive signals are if an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word "MAYDAY," A person guilty of transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering with any radio communication may be liable to a fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term of one year, or both. The Minister may suspend or revoke a radio authorization where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due. The offender must be given opportunity to make representation thereto. Fees are charged for club stations, additional callsigns, etc. A Radio Inspector must be given the information he requests in course of his duties and if entry is refused the inspector may obtain a warrant In executing a warrant : Force may not be used unless an inspector is with a peace officer authorized to use force and force is authorized. Operators Certificates. B Q Page 49 Exhaminer L1 Candidates for amateur radio certification must have a valid address in Canada. There is no age limit on who can hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification. A basic examination must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued. A Canadian General Certificate Maritime RGMC holder may be issued an Amateur Radio Operators Certificate. After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic qualifications is issued, the holder may be examined in any order. for additional qualifications. 5 w.p.m.morse is the only code qualification available for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate holder with Basic Qualification may operate a station authorized in the amateur service.

5 5 Operation, Repair & Maintenance B Q Page 49 Exhaminer L1 Advanced Certificate holders may install, setup or repair amateur radio apparatus on behalf of another person only if the other person has an amateur license Advanced holders may build amateur transmitting equipment from scratch. Basic Certificate Holders may not on behalf of a friend do any work on amateur radio apparatus or permit the operation of it if the friend does not have an amateur license. Basic and 5 w.p.m. Morse Certificate holders may install an amateur station for another person: only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. Operation of Radio Apparatus. B Q Page 50 Exhaminer L05 Amateur Stations may communicate only with stations with similar authorizations. Superfluous signals or profane or obscene language. may NOT be transmited by radio amateurs No person may possess or operate a device, to amplify licence-exempt radio apparatus output power. License Exempt Radio Apparatus includes Citizen s Band (CB) radios and GMRS / FRS radios (Walkie Talkies) A radio amateur may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where: It is maintained to the Radio Communication Regulations tolerances It is certified under the Radio Standards Specifications and licensed for the specific frequencies by Industry Canada An amateur station with a maximum input to the final stage of 2 watts: must be operated by a person with an Amateur Certificate and callsign. Aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies may not be used for radio transmissions by amateur radio apparatus unless the apparatus is certified and licensed for those frequencies. Content Restrictions. B Q Page 50 Exhaminer L05 Business planning or communications are NOT permitted under any circumstances. Broadcasting information to the general public may NEVER be done by radio amateurs. False or deceptive amateur signals or communications may NEVER be transmitted by radio amateurs Secret codes may not be used. Q signals and other abbreviations or procedural signals which are not secret may be used. Any digital coding techniques used must be published in the public domain. Music may NOT be transmitted. Reduce the volume to eliminate background broadcast music. Installation and Operating Restrictions. B Q Page 51 Exhaminer L05 An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate holder may operate an amateur radio station anywhere in Canada. Only a Beacon station may transmit one-way communications. Basic and Advanced Qualifications are necessary to: Install any radio apparatus for receiving and automatically re-transmitting radio-telephone communications within the same frequency band.(repeaters) Install any radio apparatus for an amateur radio club station. Install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is not commercially manufactured for amateur use. Use of Station by Others. B Q Page 51 Exhaminer L05 A Control Operator must be present at the station control point anytime the station is transmitting Both the control operator and the station licensee are responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station. The control operator may be any qualified amateur chosen by the owner. Any person may be permitted by the owner of an amateur radio station to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of an amateur operator certificate. Family members must have amateur radio qualifications before they can be control operators.

6 6 Interference and Protection from Interference. B Q Page 52 Exhaminer L05 You may Never deliberately interfere with another station's communications Harmful Interference is the term for interference which obstructs or interrupts radio communications. If the the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users. If two amateur stations want to use the same frequency each operator has an equal right to operate on that frequency. Trials or tests which possibly may cause interference to other users are prohibited. Where interference to the reception of radiocommunications is caused by the operation of an amateur station: the Minister may require the station operator to prevent the interference. Radio amateurs are secondary users and NOT protected from interference and must not cause interference to the primary users on the frequency bands: The MHz. and MHz bands are heavily used by license exempt devices. Note; in this section of the question bank the highest frequency bands in each of the answers are the correct ones. Emergency Communication regulations B Q Page 52 Exhaminer L05 Amateur radio stations may communicate with any Amateur station involved in a real or simulated emergency. They may not communicate with non-amateur stations even in an emergency. Business communications are not permitted under any circumstance in the amateur radio service, If you hear an unanswered distress signal on a amateur band where you do not have privileges to communicate: you should offer assistance. It is permissible to broadcast, in the amateur radio service, radio communications required for the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property. Note; Only on the amateur bands. An amateur radio station in distress may use any means of radio communication, within the ham bands. There are no power limitations during an emergency. During a disaster: Amateur transmissions for essential communication needs, and to assist relief operations may be made when normal communication systems are overloaded or disrupted. Most emergency communications are handled by nets using predetermined frequencies in amateur bands. Operators are requested to avoid making unnecessary transmissions on or near frequencies being used for disaster communications if they are not directly involved with disaster communications. Messages from recognized public service agencies may be handled by amateur radio stations during peace time and civil emergencies and exercises. It is permissible to interfere with the working of another station if your station is directly involved with a distress situation. Non-remuneration, and Privacy of Communications. B Q Page 53 Exhaminer L05 No payment or remuneration of any kind is allowed for third-party, or any other messages sent by an Amateur Radio Station. The operator of an amateur station shall not demand or accept remuneration in any form in respect of a radio communication that the person transmits or receives. Radio communications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used ONLY if it is transmitted by an amateur station. There is no exception for providing information to journalists Mhz, MHz MHz

7 Station Identification, Call signs, and Prefixes. B Q Page 53 Exhaminer L05 An amateur station must identify at least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact. Each station must transmit its own call sign when two stations begin or end communications. Model craft control is the only type of unidentified communications an amateur can use. English or French, only, may be used when identifying your station. VA, VE, VO or VY. are the callsign letters that Canadian amateur radio callsigns normally start with. 7 Foreign Operation in Canada, B Q Page 54 Exhaminer L15 Banned Countries, Third-Party. US amateurs operating in Canada may use their FCC issued US callsigns with added location identifiers and do not need to obtain Canadian amateur certificates. A person operating a Canadian amateur station is forbidden to communicate with amateur stations of another country when that country has notified the International Telecommunication Union that it objects to such communications. If a non-amateur friend is using your station to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your friend; you must have your friend wait until you determine from the foreign station if their administration permits third-party traffic Third-party traffic is transmission of non-commercial or personal messages to or on behalf of a third party This may be done if the countries concerned have authorized such communications. In emergencies it is expressly permitted unless specifically prohibited by the foreign administration concerned If you let an unqualified third party use your amateur station you must continuously monitor and supervise the third party's participation. Messages originating from MARS (US Military Auxiliary Radio System ) or CFARS (Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service) are not considered to be third party messages. Frequency Bands and Qualification Requirements. B Q Page 55 Exhaminer L15 If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who has additional qualifications you are allowed only the privileges permitted by your qualifications. If you let an amateur with additional qualifications to yours control your station you are still allowed only the privileges of your qualifications. In addition to passing the Basic written examination, you must pass one of the following before you are allowed to use the HF amateur frequencies below 30 Mhz: Advanced Certificate. Or 5 w.p.m CW Certificate. Or attain a mark of 80% on the Basic exam. Exception to the below 30MHz rule The amateur band between 29.5 and 29.7 MHz is for repeaters only and hams with Basic 70% can "automatically retransmit" i.e. use these repeaters. Radio controlled models may be operated by a licensed amateur on all frequencies above 30MHz. Amateur Radio is allocated various frequency bands within the radio spectrum. Each transmission takes up some space so there are limited numbers of transmissions that can be fitted into each band. Bandwidth is the space that each transmission takes and some emission modes require more bandwidth than others. From the narrowest bandwidth to the widest the order of these emissions is: 1. CW or RTTY digital mode 2. SSB Voice & Slow scan TV, 3. FM Voice, 4. Fast scan TV Allowed bandwidth The 160 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: 1.8 to 2.0 MHz. 6 khz The 75/80 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to 3.5 to 4.0 MHz. 6 khz The 40 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: 7.0 to 7.3 MHz. 6 khz The 30 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: 10.0 to MHz 1 khz The 20 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: to MHz. 6 khz The 15 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: to MHz 6 khz the 12 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: to khz The 10 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to to 29.7 Mhz 20 khz Single Sideband voice transmissions take up to 3kHz of bandwidth so the 6kHz allowable bandwidth on HF is ample

8 8 Maximum Bandwidth by Frequency Bands B Q Page 55 Exhaminer L15 The High Frequency (HF) bands (0-30MHz) are the lowest frequencies that amateurs can use and are used for world-wide contacts using Single Sideband (SSB), CW and Digital modes. Wide bandwidth modes are not allowed to be used on HF. Only one band of amateur frequencies between 7 MHz and 30 MHz has a maximum allowed bandwidth of less than 6 khz. That band is: 10.1 to Mhz, reserved for CW & digital. SSB is not permitted When transmitting near band limits operators must ensure that the bandwidth required on either side of the carrier frequency does not fall out of band Out-of-band transmissions are prohibited. Fast scan TV uses the widest bandwidth and is allowed only on frequencies over 430MHz. in the UHF range, AMTOR is a digital mode with a narrow bandwidth similar to RTTY. Restrictions on Capacity & Power by Qualifications. B Q Page 56 Exhaminer L15 The transmitter power radio amateurs must use at all times is the minimum legal power necessary to communicate. Transceiver power is measured at the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier. Transmitting power can be expressed as : Basic Limitations Advanced DC Input Power to the final stage 250W DC 1,000W DC Or Peak Envelope Power(PEP) measured at the antenna terminals. 560W PEP 2,250W PEP Or Carrier Power 190W Carrier Power 750W C P A Radio Operator with Basic Qualification is limited to a maximum SSB transmitting power of 250 W DC input or, 560W PEP output for SSB, or 190W carrier power for any other type of transmission. Basic with Honours holders or Basic with Morse code holders may not use more power than the Basic limitation. Basic and Morse code holders can use a maximum of 560 watts PEP output power for SSB operation on 7055kHz An Advanced Certificate holder is allowed four times the power of a Basic Certificate holder rounded to the nearest 50W, that is 1,000W DC input power. There is one trick question about the maximum power allowed for basic with honours to which the answer is 160W Carrier Power. That is only the maximum compared to the the other choices given, not the allowed maximum. DC input power is the power applied to the final stage of the transmitter or amplifier.

9 Unmodulated Carriers, and Re-Transmission. B Q Page 56 Exhaminer L15 A Repeater station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations. An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted only for brief tests on frequencies below 30 MHz. Signals in a frequency band below 29.5 MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted, unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below 29.5MHz AM, Frequency Stability,& Measurements. B Q Page 56 Exhaminer L15 The frequency stability must be comparable to crystal control when operating on frequencies below 148 Mhz: An over modulation indicating device must be installed in amateur stations using radio telephony (voice) The maximum percentage of radio modulation permitted in an amateur station is 100 percent. Frequency meter: All amateur stations, regardless of the mode of transmission used, must be equipped with a reliable means of determining the operating radio frequency 9 International Telecommunication Union (ITU). B Q Page 57 Exhaminer L15 The ONLY messages that may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country are those of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative unimportance. In addition to complying with the Act and Radio Communication Regulations, Canadian radio amateurs must also comply with regulations of the International Telecommunication Union. The ITU does not limit the frequencies of amateurs who do not have Morse code. Operation Outside Canada. B Q Page 57 Exhaminer L15 Canada is in International Telecommunication Union Region 2. Australia, Japan, and South-east Asia are in ITU Region 3. A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station in the state of Florida or 7 kilometres (4 miles) offshore from the coast of Florida, is subject to the frequency band limits applicable to US radio amateurs. ITU Regions

10 10 Examinations. B Q Page 57 Exhaminer L1 The examination fee for exams by an accredited volunteer examiner is to be negotiated between examiner and candidate. Industry Canada offices will charge a $20 fee per qualification for taking amateur radio exams. Disabled candidates may be allowed to recite the Morse code text in code sounds. Those with poor literacy skills may be given oral tests Candidates must have sufficient knowledge of English or French to take the exam unaided Accredited Volunteer Examiners must have Basic, Advanced and Morse code qualifications. Antenna Structure Approval. B Q Page 58 Exhaminer L15 The Minister of Industry has authority over antenna installations and Industry Canada has the final decision. Before erecting an antenna structure, for which community concerns could be raised, a radio amateur must go through the Land-Use Authority s (LUA) process, and possibly consult the neighbours. Either an LUA exclusion or an Industry Canada CPC exclusion means that public consultation may not be required. If there is no LUA public consultation process the Amateur must follow Industry Canada s Default Consultation process UNLESS a proposal is excluded by either authority (CPC or the LUA) Height limit for a proposal excluded from public consultation is the taller of LUA or Industry Canada s exclusion. In Public Consultations an amateur proponent is not required to attend public meetings but must address reasonable and relevant concerns which have been provided in writing within the 30 day public comment period. Radio Freq. Electromagnetic Field Limits. B Q Page 59 Exhaminer L15 Health Canada has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body in Safety Code 6. It does not limit the power levels fed into antennas. Frequencies from 30 to 300 MHz. pose the greatest risk from RF energy since the human body absorbs RF energy most in this range. Permissible exposure increases above and below these frequencies. The maximum safe power output is not specified for handheld transmitters but they are NOT excluded from Safety Code 6 requirements. Radio Frequency Interference Complaints. B Q Page 59 Exhaminer L15 For interference to a neighbour's FM receiver and stereo, if the field strength at the receiver is below Industry Canada s immunity criteria it will be deemed that the affected equipment's lack of immunity is the cause. If the Field Strength is above the criteria the amateur s transmission will be deemed at fault. Radio-sensitive equipment is the term for any device, machinery or equipment, other than radio apparatus, the use or functioning of which is, or can be, adversely affected by radio communication emissions. Broadcast transmitters are NOT included in the list of field strength criteria for resolution of immunity complaints. Chapter 2 VHF/UHF Repeaters B continued next page Q Page 60 The handheld can contact base on Simplex. The mobile is using the repeater since the direct path is blocked by the hill. The handheld could also use the repeater to contact either of the other two.

11 UHF / VHF Repeaters B See diagram previous page Q Page 60 Exhaminer L16 The main purpose of repeaters is to increase the range of mobile and portable stations. Two frequencies are involved, you receive on one frequency and transmit out on a second frequency This is called Half-Duplex operation. Telephones use Full Duplex by which both parties can speak at the same time. Band Offset, (the difference between the transmit and receive frequencies) is normally 600kHz on the 2 metre band. The different repeater frequencies for receive and transmit have to be programmed into the radios. Frequency Coordination is used to assign frequencies to minimize interference with other repeaters. CTCSS "Continuous Tone-Coded Squelch System" is a sub-audible tone added to a carrier which causes a repeater to accept a signal. Some repeaters are open and do not require a tone but, if one does, for regular use the tone should be programmed into the radio. A repeater Time Out timer interrupts lengthy continuous transmissions to allow other users to share. Transmissions should be short to allow for emergency use of repeaters (don't tie them up). Pause between transmissions to allow anyone else who wants to use the repeater speak. Voice Procedures Chapter 2 Always listen first so you do not interfere with another transmission When calling say the other operator's callsign once and then your own. Use the phonetic alphabet if there is any difficulty in understanding. Using made-up phonetics is confusing. To inquire where someone is just say "Where are you" or "What is your location". Do not say "Break" or "Break, Break" unless you have a distress call. Giving your callsign and "Clear" means you have finished and the frequency is free for others. CQ means calling any station Answer a call or CQ by saying the callers callsign once and then your own once. The correct way to make a CQ call when using voice is to say CQ three times, This is, then your callsign three times. Calling via repeater - say the call sign of the desired station once and then your own, example; VE7BGP this is VE7LSE. To join in a contact in progress say your callsign once at a break in transmission. To break into a conversation (non-emergency) on a repeater, wait for a pause and say your callsign. "Contact" though used is not proper procedure. Operating and Procedures "Monitoring" means you are available to chat. International Phonetic Alphabet. B Q Page 60 Exhaminer L16 This uses standard words to represent letters. To make your callsign better understood use the International Phonetic Alphabet. When using voice (phone) it will be an aid to correctly identify your station. Exercise - Spell out the letters for the words: PLAY BRIDGE 11 Alpha Bravo Charlie Foxtrot Golf Hotel Kilo Lima Mike Papa Quebec Romeo Uniform Victor Whiskey 0 - Zero 1 - Wun 2 - Too 3 - Thuree 6 - Seeks 7 - Sayven 8 - Ate Delta India November Sierra X-Ray 4 - Fower 9 - Niner Echo Juliet Oscar Tango Yankee Zulu 5 - Five 10 - Wun Zero Five Decimal Ate. Period at the end of a sentence. - Stop

12 12 HF / VHF / UHF Simplex Operation. B Q Page 61 Exhaminer L16 CQ means calling any station The correct way to make a CQ call is to say CQ three times "this is", then your callsign three times. Answer a call or CQ by saying the callers callsign once and then your own once. SIMPLEX operation is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency. Simplex frequencies should be chosen carefully to avoid a channel that is the input to a local repeater, Switch to simplex from repeaters when possible or if distance and situation permits. If you can hear the station you are talking to on the reverse or input frequency of the transmitter, you could and should use simplex. Local communications should use VHF and UHF to minimize use of the HF long distance bands. It is not practical to change a repeater frequency so if you find yourself trying to operate simplex on a repeater frequency you must change to another frequency. Buildings, trees and hills can block simplex signals after a few miles; sometimes reflection of signals from objects interferes with reception and just moving the antenna a few inches improves it. Simplex signals can go as far as line-of-sight allows. Transmissions from a mountain top can go hundreds of kilometers. Roof-top (and car roof-top) antennas help simplex signals go farther. When using simplex the higher, the better. HF operation HF Lower Sideband is used below 10.0 Mhz but above 10MHz the upper sideband is used. The 20 metre band is 14 to MHz so it uses upper sideband khz which is MHz would use lower sideband. At various times of the day and depending on solar radiation any one band may be good for transmissions or not. To find out if a band is open for long distance communication you can listens for signals from an amateur beacon station in that area or a foreign TV or radio broadcast on a nearby frequency. HF Operation, Dummy load, Bandplans B Q Page 62 Exhaminer L16 Before transmitting you should always listen to find out if the frequency is in use and also ask if it is. Turning down your output power to the minimum necessary is an adjustment to consider if you find there is an extremely strong signal into your contact station. A dummy load is used to simulate an electrical load, for testing purposes in place of an antenna. Tuning into a dummy load will shorten transmitter tune up time on air and avoid interference to other stations. If propagation or band conditions change during a contact and you notice increasing interference you should move to a different frequency. If a net is about to begin, on a frequency you're on, you should move to another frequency as a courtesy to the net. Bandplans are guidelines devised by amateurs for using different operating modes within an amateur band. Refer to the RAC Band plan for 0-30 MHz available from VHF & UHF Bandplans at Typically low frequencies in a band are used for CW and Digital but you should check the bandplan for your area. You are a net control station on a daily HF net and your normal frequency is in use; if the users are not agreeable to moving frequency, you should conduct the net 3 to 5 KHz away from the normal net frequency. When selecting a single side band (SSB) phone transmitting frequency, the minimum separation between you and a contact in progress is 3 khz to avoid interference. 3kHz is half of the allowed bandwidth on HF. Morse Code Operating procedures B Q Page 63 Exhaminer L16 To send a CQ call send CQ three times followed by your callsign three times. To answer one, send the other station s callsign twice, then DE followed by your callsign twice Sending speed; CW or Morse code should be sent at any speed you can reliably receive. Separation of CW transmissions should be at least Hz from a contact in progress to reduce interference. Full-break-in telegraphy is where incoming signals are received between transmitted Morse dots. Procedural signals, Pro words To call CQ: CQ CQ CQ DE VE7BSM VE7BSM VE7BSM ( Callsign three times) To answer or reply VE7BSM VE7BSM DE VA7MPG VA7MPG K. ( Callsigns twice) CQ - Calling any Station. DE - From. DX - Distant station 73 - Best wishes / Good Bye (not 73 s). K - Any station transmit, or go ahead, or over to you. AR means End of message. BT / TV- Break in the text. SK - End of transmission. Hi Hi - Laughter

13 RST Codes B Q Page 63 Exhaminer L16 The S-Meter is found on HF sets It shows received signal strength on a logarithmic decibel scale. A strength of S-9 is a very strong signal and corresponds to the Estimated Strength 9 in RST reporting. Signals stronger than S-9 may be reported stating the number of decibels over S-9 displayed. Raising the power 4 times increases the S meter 1 unit To raise a receiver s S-meter reading one unit the power output of a transmitter must be raised 4 times S Meter RST means Readability, Strength, and Tone RST Code is a short way to describe or give a signal or reception report (i.e. radio check) based upon your S meter reading and what you actually hear. Readability scale is 1 to Unreadable 2 -Occasional words, barely readable 3. Readable with much difficulty 4.- Readable with little difficulty 5. Perfectly readable 13 Signal Strength scale is 1 to Barely perceptible 2 - Very weak 3- Weak 4 - Fair 5.- Fairly good 6. - Good 7.- Moderately strong 8.- Strong 9.- Very strong signals Tone scale is 1-9 This is used only in Morse code and digital transmissions 1 - Extremely rough & broad tone 2 - Very rough, harsh 3. -Rough, rectified but not filtered 4 - Rough, some filtering 5. - Filtered, rectified, strong ripple-modulation 6 - Filtered, some ripple 7.- Near pure tone, slight trace of ripple-modulation 8.- Near perfect 9.- Perfect tone For voice an RST of 5-9 is the best signal For CW an RST of is the best signal RST 1-1 means unreadable and barely perceptible RST means quite readable, fair strength perfect tone RST 3-3 readable with much difficulty & very weak RST perfectly readable, moderate strong, perfect tone RST 5-7 perfectly readable, moderately strong RST of 5-9 plus 20 db means you are perfectly readable with a signal strength of 20dB over S9 on the S meter When a distant station asks for a signal report on a local repeater it needs to know how well it is received at the repeater not how well you receive the repeater. Q Codes. B Q Page 64 Exhaminer L16 (There are many more Q codes than those given here) The Q code is a standardised collection of three-letter message encodings, all starting with the letter "Q", The International Telecommunication Union (ITU), uses it worldwide in radio-telegraphy (Morse code) Abbreviations form a question when followed by a question mark. i.e. QTH? What is your location? QRL Is this frequency in use? (or are you busy?) QSB Your signal is fading QRM I m being interfered with Man Made ( jamming). QRS Send more slowly QRN I m troubled by static Natural interference. QRX I will call you again. QRZ Who is calling me? QTH My location is My QTH is Nanaimo. QSO A contact is in progress thanks for the QSO). QSY Change frequency (QSY to ) Additional codes QRP Reduce transmitter power. Also DXing with minimum power < 5W QSL I acknowledge I understand, Roger QSL cards are written confirmation of a contact QRT Stop sending I m QRT for the day (finished, done). QRO Increase power Should I increase power? QRU I have nothing for you Have you nothing for me? QRV I am ready Are you ready?

14 14 Emergency Operating Procedures. B Q Page 64 Exhaminer L16 1. MAYDAY or SOS is used for life-threatening distress situations and takes precedence over all other calls. 2. PAN-PAN is used for Emergency but not immediate distress. 3. SECURITY (Securitay) is used for weather warnings, aids to navigation, used mostly for maritime situations. In order of priority Distress calls come before Emergency messages followed by Security messages. MAYDAY is used on voice (phone) transmissions while SOS is used on CW. The Proper way is to say MAYDAY several times i.e. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY this is VE7TWO. For CW use SOS --- three times If you re using a repeater and you want to interrupt a conversation with a distress call, you should break in immediately following a transmission and state your situation and callsign. During a contact if you hear a distress call break in, you must acknowledge the station in distress and determine their location and what assistance is needed. If you are unable to offer direct assistance you should contact authorities and then maintain watch until you are certain assistance is forthcoming. It is a good idea to have back up power to use your stations in an emergency and not by commercial AC lines. A most important accessory for handhelds in emergencies is several sets of batteries. Dipole antennas are a good choice for portable and / or emergency HF stations. Amateur Radio operators can register with Emergency Management BC (EMBC) as emergency communications volunteers. Contact Municipal or Regional District emergency programs for details. QSL cards, Azimuth Map, Record Keeping. B Q Page 65 Exhaminer L16 A QSL card is written proof of communications between two amateurs, there is also e-qsl via the internet. QSL cards are a signed post card listing the date, time, frequency, mode, and power. UTC (Universal Time Coordinated) formerly Greenwich Mean Time - GMT. is used for Station logs and QSL cards To set your clock to UTC time listen to either CHU Canada, WWV or WWVH in U.S. (also available on the internet) Keeping station log books and recording contacts is no longer required by Industry Canada. Antenna Orientation, Maps An Azimuthal map is centred on your location and shows a compass bearing from your location to any point on the map It assists in antenna planning and pointing and determining the shortest path. A directional antenna position 180 degrees (reverse bearing) from the shortest path is referred to as long path. Sometimes long path propagation conditions are better than the short path ones. If listening to local stations making contact with distant stations (i.e. DX New Zealand) you cannot hear the DX station, try pointing your antenna in a long path direction 180 degrees away from the short path direction. Azimuth Map There are free internet programs you can use to generate an azimuth map for any location.

15 Chapter 3 Station Assembly, Practice and Safety Next 3 pages are explanatory and not directly in the question bank HF ( High Frequency) Receivers and Transmitters Radio emissions are easy to generate. If you hold an AM radio close to a fluorescent light you will detect a buzz which actually is Radio Frequency (RF) emissions being given off by excited electrons. Anything that creates a spark will give off RF (Radio Frequency Waves) which is why care must be taken to shield the spark plugs in engines from interfering with electronic equipment.. For Radio we do not want this type of all-spectrum noise but emissions at specific frequencies. An LCR Circuit (Resonant Circuit) which uses capacitors and inductors has the quality of being resonant at a single frequency and, depending on the circuit, will pass or stop frequencies that are not at the resonant frequency. Oscillators use resonant circuits to produce a steady signal. It can be either a fixed frequency oscillator or a Variable Frequency Oscillator (VFO) which can be tuned to produce different frequencies as required. Oscillators must be electrically and mechanically stable so they do not drift in frequency. An Amplifier increases the strength of a signals fed into it. We can amplify Voltage, Current or Power. Resistance can not be amplified. Antennas have a resonant ( tuned) frequency and when the emission from a transmitter is at that frequency the antenna will broadcast an electro-magnetic radio wave. With an oscillator to produce a signal, an amplifier (to boost the power) and an antenna you have an RF transmitter. CW (Continuous Wave) also called Morse code: A simple transmitter which produces a radio frequency emission carries no information to a receiver on that frequency except whether it is on or off. Morse Code (CW) interrupts the carrier by switching it on and off to transmit dots and dashes encoding the alphabet and numbers. Amplitude modulation (AM) for voice We can use an RF transmission as a carrier wave, to convey sound information by AM. AM stands for Amplitude Modulation which is used for AM radio broadcasts. Microphones receive sound waves which are vibrations in air (or another medium like water) and converts them into a varying voltage which in turn is used to alter the amplitude (strength) of the radio carrier wave. This impresses the speech information on to the carrier wave in a process called Amplitude Modulation 15 Amplitude Modulation The original carrier is a sine wave This varying signal carries the speech information. This is the modulated wave. The waveform of the varying signal is now replicated in the envelope profile of the modulated wave You can see that as the voltage of the varying signal increases the amplitude of the modulated wave becomes greater Diagram is exaggerated, audio signal changes slowly with respect to radio carrier, typical speech sound of 500 Hz varies 1000 times slower than carrier, so we see 1000 cycles of carrier to every one cycle of audio

16 16 SSB - Single SideBand on HF Explanatory Page Amplitude Modulation of radio signals is used for Commercial Broadcasting. Single Sideband (SSB) is more efficient than AM but at the cost of considerable complexity and expense so SSB is not used in broadcast radio. SSB transmissions can only be received by AM receivers in a distorted form. When any two RF signals are combined the resulting output is a mix of frequencies, the two original input frequencies and the sum and difference of them. AM broadcasts the whole mix of frequencies The original frequencies are 1.The carrier, 2.The information signal. The sum of these is the upper sideband and the difference is the lower sideband. Each sideband carries the same information so it is sent in duplicate. The carrier is much stronger than the sidebands. Single Sideband extracts only the essential information to send by using a Balanced Modulator to remove the carrier. A filter then removes one of the sidebands before final amplification and transmission of the single sideband signal. Either the upper (USB) or the lower sideband (LSB) can be used but a receiver must select the same one to receive the signal. Removing the carrier in SSB results in the power of the carrier going instead to increase the strength of the sidebands. When the SSB signal is received, it is necessary to replace the carrier, which was stripped off at the transmitter. By varying the frequency of the carrier replacement the receiver can be tuned to different frequencies which is done by a Variable Frequency Oscillator at the Mixer. The Intermediate Frequency (IF) is one of the products, (usually the difference) of mixing the VFO frequency with the incoming signal. Having a fixed IF simplifies design of the rest of the receiver since it only has to handle the one frequency. The IF is amplified and goes to the Product Detector which demodulates the signal to produce a replica of the original voice waveform. The Product Detector employs a Beat Frequency Oscillator to extract the voice waveform. The signal and BFO frequencies beat against each other to produce the original envelope profile. In the diagram, below, CI is Constructive Interference and DI is Destructive Interference. In CI the amplitudes of the two waves are added together and in DI the two cancel each other out. Beat freq. oscillator Wave 1 Signal Wave 2 Product: The envelope profile of the waveform replicates the original transmitted signal The upper sideband is used above 10 Mhz and the lower sideband is used below 10 Mhz

17 Frequency Modulation (FM) Explanatory FM does not vary the amplitude like AM but varies the instantaneous frequency instead. 17 Information signal Modulated wave AM / SSB vs FM AM / SSB is often noisy since many factors can affect amplitude - pass under a bridge, disorient the antenna. It uses a narrower bandwidth and for this reason is mostly used on the HF frequencies. HF frequencies are capable of worldwide communications while higher frequencies, VHF and UHF, are line of sight. FM is not inherently higher frequency than AM, it is just choices, Aviation Band is 108 to 136 MHz and uses AM. FM is not used below 29.5 MHz since it would exceed permitted bandwidths. FM has greater fidelity with superior immunity to environmental influences. FM is subject to the Capture Effect where the strongest of several stations on a frequency will be the only one demodulated. Bandwidths FM signals use between 10 and 20kHz of bandwidth. SSB signals use between 2 and 3 khz of bandwidth. HF receivers may have a number of RF filters fitted, typically SSB would use a 2.4kHz one. CW would use a 250 Hz one and possibly a Hz audio filter. In order of the bandwidth required from narrowest to widest the modes are: CW or RTTY, SSB Voice, FM Voice. HF Station Block Diagram B Q Page 65 Exhaminer L14a SWR/ Watt meter/ Bridge may be combined in one unit in some Antenna Tuners An Antenna Tuner is used for tuning most antennas on frequencies below 14MHz. Harmonics. A transmitter emits radio waves at a selected frequency but it may also radiate Harmonics which are multiples of the selected frequency. The higher harmonics may cause interference to other equipment so A Low Pass Filter is connected as close as possible to the transmitter output. In the diagram above a Linear Amplifier can be switched into the circuit to boost the transmitted signal or the transceiver can be run barefoot as shown (usually 100 watts) without the extra amplification. SWR meter. The antenna must be matched to the output of the transmitter. This is called matching impedances and is done by the tuner. The SWR meter measures the effectiveness of the match. A poor impedance match will give reduced radiation from the antenna and may damage the transmitter by reflecting power back Dummy Load. A dummy load can be temporarily connected in the tuning process or when adjusting the transmitter. It allows adjustments to be made without transmitting a signal by dissipating all the energy of the signal as heat. USE THE COMPUTER PROGRAM HAMPUZZLE TO PRACTICE DOING THE BLOCK DIAGRAMS

18 18 Each of these Block Diagrams have their own question section. Recommended that you do them one at a time B Q Page 66 Exhaminer L12 Exhaminer L10 B Q Page 66 LOCAL RF OSCILLATOR B Q Page 66 Exhaminer L10

19 SSB and CW Receiver B Q. page 67 Exhaminer L12 SSB Transmitter B Q. page 67 Exhaminer L10 19 LOCAL RF OSCILLATOR Memory Aid Make A Big-model For Mixing Large Antennas Memory Aid Angry Rats Mix Figs In Private After Speaking You can devise your own memory aids. Remember that receivers will always start with an antenna and end with a speaker. Transmitters alwqys start with microphones and end with antennas.

20 20 Digital Radio Block diagram Q Page 67 Exhaminer L14a B microphone audio input Digital / Packet-Radio This transmits and receives digital data via radio using a Modem (Modulator / Demodulator). Data is sent as a series of packets which also enclose control information. The data source is a computer, then a modem called the Terminal Node Controller (TNC) converts the data to tones for the radio microphone jack which are transmitted via the radio link. The TNC of the distant station converts tones back to computer data. A Computer Sound Card using any of a number of computer programs may be used instead of a complex modem This may be an internal computer card or a separate sound card interface that replaces the TNC. Regulated Power Supply Block diagram B Q Page 68 Exhaminer L09a This is a Linear Power Supply which uses a large and heavy transformer and large filter capacitor. Switching Power Supplies have become common in recent years. These have additional stages which use transistors to produce high frequency AC, permitting a much smaller transformer and filter. They are lighter and more efficient but need careful design to prevent them emitting RF interference. All computer power supplies are the switching type. Yagi Antenna, 3- element antenna B Q Page 68 Exhaminer L08 The Boom is for mechanical support purposes and is not a radiating element. Reflector Driven Element Director The Driven Element is neither the longest or the shortest element. It is the only one the feedline is attached to; the others are Parasitic Elements excited by the radiation from it. The Reflector is the longest radiating element. Boom The Director is the shortest radiating element Forward Direction

21 HF Receiver Fundamentals B Q Page 68 Exhaminer L12 The quality of a receiver is judged by three parameters; Sensitivity, Selectivity and Stability. Stability means that the receiver will not drift in frequency Sensitivity is measured by the receiver s Signal-to-Noise ratio Selectivity is achieved by the use of Filters which come in different bandwidths. One can be a Notch Filter for attenuating an interfering carrier signal on SSB. RF (radio frequency) Filters for different modes have different bandwidths, typically: CW-250 Hz, SSB-2.4 khz Voice frequencies are from 300 to 3000 Hz but CW uses tones from 300Hz to 900 Hz, mostly around 800Hz Filters Filters can also be placed in the Audio Stages of a receiver for greater control of the audio. In a SSB receiver the suppressed carrier must be replaced to detect the signal. The Beat Frequency Oscillator supplies this and beats with the received signal in the Product Detector. 21 Intermediate Frequency The incoming signal is mixed with the output of the local oscillator to produce the intermediate frequency. This frequency (IF) is usually the difference between the two frequencies so with an incoming signal of 3.54Mhz and an oscillator frequency of MHz the IF would be 0.455Mhz which equals 455 khz HF Transmitter and AM Fundamentals B , Q Page 69 Exhaminer L10 CW (Continuous Wave) transmitters are the only ones that have a Variable-Frequency Oscillator (VFO) connected to a Buffer/Driver and a Power Amplifier. CW also known as Morse code is transmitted by radio as an interrupted carrier. Chirp is a small change in a CW transmitter frequency each time it is keyed. It can be cured by keeping the power supply voltages very steady under transmit load. Dummy loads dissipate all the energy of the signal in heat. Power into a transceiver will always be greater than the output power since all RF circuits and components lose some RF energy as heat. Mismatch; transceivers must be matched in impedance to the transmission line and antenna as any mismatch will lessen the power transferred to the antenna and will give reduced antenna radiation. Oscillators must be mechanically and electrically stable so they do not drift in frequency SSB Fundamentals B Q Page 69 Exhaminer L10 Peak Envelope Power is the average power applied to an antenna at the crest of the modulation envelope Amplitude Modulation varies the instantaneous amplitude of an RF wave so the envelope of the resulting signal takes the form of the modulating audio for the purpose of conveying information. Balanced Modulators are used to suppress the carrier in SSB transceivers and are followed by Filters. Speech Processors are used in SSB to improve signal intelligibility at the receiver. If the transmission is 100% modulated, using a speech processor will add nothing to the output power ALC (Automatic Level Control) on SSB controls the peak audio output so the power amplifier is not overdriven. The audio level is shown on an ALC Meter FM Fundamentals B Q Page 70 Exhaminer L10, L12 FM or UHF voice (phone) is best for local voice communications as it provides good signal-to-noise ratio at low power levels. Bandwidth The usual bandwidth of an FM signal is between 10 khz and 20 khz FM is not used below 28.0 MHz as the bandwidth would exceed the regulation limits. Capture Effect: FM signals behave unusually when two or more signals are present on the same frequency the strongest signal will be the only one heard. This is called the Capture Effect. Deviation control or Microphone gain determines the amount of modulation of a signal. An unmodulated carrier is what an FM transmitter would produce if the microphone failed to work, Overdeviation may cause your transmission to be loud and distorted and result in interference to nearby frequencies or out-of-channel emissions. Talk further away from the Microphone to reduce overdeviation. A Reactance Modulator connected to an RF power amplifier will produce Phase Modulated emissions

22 22 Station Accessories B Q Page 70 Exhaminer L14a Receive / Transmit Switch; Where the same antenna is used for transmitting and receiving the receiver must be muted or disabled when transmitting. Most modern transceivers have a built-in circuit to do this, but an antenna change-over switch also can disable the unit not being used Electronic Keyers are used by many amateurs to form good Morse code characters. Microphones are connected to transceivers for voice operation. The microphone gain should be adjusted for slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks. A Loudspeaker could be used as a microphone. Overmodulation or Over Deviation occurs when the microphone gain is turned up too high or you are speaking too close to the microphone. This increases the bandwidth and may cause splatter interference on nearby frequencies i.e. out of channel emissions. Try speaking further away from the microphone. VOX is the term for Voice Operated exchange where speaking into the microphone sends a transmission without the necessity of pressing the Press-to-Talk (PTT) button. Digital / Packet Radio B Q Page 71 Exhaminer L14b Splatter: In a mode that uses a computer Sound Card, audio that is too high can cause splatter or out-of-channel emissions. RTTY stands for Radio Teletype, a mode developed from early print transmission techniques. It requires a minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress of 250 to 500 Hz Bandwidth Digital transmissions have similar bandwidth to CW The list of emission modes from the narrowest to the widest bandwidth is : CW or RTTY; SSB Voice; FM Voice AX.25 is one packet radio protocol. An AX.25 station will have a computer, a transceiver and possibly a GPS APRS (Automatic Packet Reporting System),, uses AX.25 protocol and is of particular value in search and rescue and keeping track of mobile units. It uses a computer, a radio and usually a GPS. Phase Modulation is used in some other digital modes and is produced by a Reactance Modulator A Digipeater is a repeater which retransmits only data that is marked to be retransmitted A Network is a way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent long distances Monitoring means that a station is displaying all messages, including ones that may not be sent to it, but is not replying to any. Connected in an AX.25 link means a station is sending data to only one other station; it replies the data is being received correctly. Baudot was an early telegraph code which does not apply to packet radio. Mark and Space are the names of signals used to transmit the states 1 and 0 in digital radio. AMTOR is a digital protocol, it uses Mode A for communications after contact is established APRS stations all use the same frequency and an operator can send short digital (text) messages which are received by any others within range. The older messages are deleted after a while so the system is constantly being updated with the latest messages. Units usually have a linked GPS so the location of any unit is sent to all the others. The position information may be displayed as latitude and longitude in text only, or a map display on either a handheld or a computer screen. The equipment can be a computer linked to a radio or a handheld unit with GPS. Recent tablet computers have built-in GPS and smart phones with GPS can also be used. Internet Radio Linking Project, (IRLP), links amateur radio station nodes the world over by using Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP). With IRLP a ham with a handheld VHF transceiver can talk to another handheld VHF in a different country. EchoLink, DStar and WIRES are similar to IRLP, linking ham radio and the internet. They are not all compatible with the others, Winlink 2000 (WL2K) with its subset RMS Express allows amateur radio operators to send messages over HF, VHF or UHF frequencies. It is used by some emergency communications groups and by offshore sailors to remain in contact with home. PACTOR is presently the fastest digital modem available, it is a proprietary modem which is somewhat expensive but is used by emergency response agencies and some offshore sailors

23 Batteries. B Q Page 71 Exhaminer L02 Batteries produce Direct Current (DC) through a chemical reaction and have positive and negative terminals. They can be single use (primary) non-rechargeable batteries OR storage batteries which can be repeatedly recharged. The two types should not be confused since trying to charge a non-rechargeable battery could cause it to explode. A standard car battery is a rechargeable storage battery, nominally 12 Volt, and is a wet cell or gel-cell storage battery. It is made of six lead-acid cells, each of 2.1 Volts in series giving a total voltage of up to 12.8 Volts, The charging voltage for a car battery is about 13.8V and immediately after being taken off charge the battery will read close to that for a while (called the float charge) before dropping to the fully charged voltage of 12.8 V. Dry Cells Non-Rechargeables: Depending on the chemistry involved dry cell types each have a characteristic cell voltage The older Carbon-Zinc dry cells and modern Alkaline cells have a nominal voltage of 1.5V Rechargeables: Ni-Cad, and NiMh have nominal voltages of 1.2V Ni-Cad should not be discharged below 1.0 volts Li-Ion and Li-Poly batteries voltages range from 3.7 to 4.2 V so they are not interchangeable with common sizes of battery like AA, AAA, D etc. Under heavy load a 1.5 volt battery may drop to 1.2 volts. This is due to the internal resistance of the battery. Battery Capacity is stated as the current it is designed to produce over a period of time, e.g. in Ampere Hours (A/H). Exceeding the rated discharge rate means the battery charge will not last as long Batteries of any kind should never be short circuited. 23 To increase voltage batteries may be connected in series. To increase current connect them in parallel. Power Supplies B Q Page 72 Exhaminer L09a Electrical Power supplied to homes in North America has been standardized over the years at 120 volts and 240 volts AC. Alternating Current (AC) must be converted to Direct Current (DC) at a lower voltage to power transceivers. Transceivers require a high current capacity power supply. They often run on 12 volts DC which allows them to be connected directly to the DC systems of vehicles and boats. A Power Supply is used to convert household current to 12V DC. A Transformer is needed in a power supply to reduce the voltage from 240V or 120V AC to 12V before Rectification which is the term for converting AC to DC. Power Rating: Transformers must have sufficient power rating in watts for the expected load. Multiply the volts by the amps to get the wattage. Diodes convert AC to DC since they allow electrons to flow in only one direction from Cathode to Anode. To convert AC to pulsating DC you would use a Diode. Filters are used to eliminate any residual AC ripple in the output of power supplies. A loud low-frequency hum in your radio transmission may be due to a bad filter capacitor so you should look at the power supply first. Fuses should be installed as close as possible to a vehicle battery to prevent an over current situation from starting a fire. Wire sizes in power leads should be chosen so the voltage drop between the power supply and the transceiver is kept within recommended limits.

24 24 Electrical Safety B Q Page 72 Exhaminer L09b 30 Volts is the minimum voltage that can be dangerous to humans. As little as 20 milliamperes is enough to affect the heart. High Voltage; If you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage you should: Turn off the power, Call for emergency help, Provide first-aid if needed. Before fault finding in a mains operated power supply you should turn off the power and remove the power plug. Unauthorised Person safety. It is advisable to put a key-operated On /Off switch in a high voltage power supply to prevent unauthorized persons from using your station. Mobile Radios in your vehicle can be secured from use by unauthorised persons by removing the microphone. High Voltage Power Supplies often have a switch which turns off the power when the cabinet is opened to prevent an electric shock to any person opening the cabinet incautiously. Grounding Safety B Q Page 73 Exhaminer L09b Shock Protection: For best protection against electric shock all station equipment should be connected to a good ground. 3-wire plug: On mains operated equipment you should use a 3-wire power cord and plug. The green wire on the plug grounds the chassis to the wall socket and prevents it from becoming live. Ground Rod; For a good earth ground, a copper-clad steel rod may be driven into the ground. The grounding system including the length of the rod must conform to the applicable electrical code requirements. Alternative Ground: If a separate ground system is not possible an alternative ground could be a metallic cold water pipe. Make sure the metallic pipe section is continuous to ground and is not connected to plastic pipe. RF and Ground Wires A long ground wire, as from a 3rd storey window, can act more like an antenna than a ground and may pick up stray RF energy. An RF burn may result from touching the wire. Ground wires should be as short as possible to prevent RF hot spots developing Antenna Safety B Q Page 73 Exhaminer L09b RF Burns. Antennas carry high voltage energy and a person may suffer RF burns by contacting an antenna while it is transmitting. Wire antennas and open wire feed lines should be mounted high enough so no-one can touch them when you are transmitting. Lightning may damage radio station equipment. When the station is not in use it is advisable to: 1. Ground all antenna and rotator cables. 2. Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables. Lightning Arrestors should be installed on the antenna feed line, outside, as close to earth grounding as possible. Antenna Towers Persons working on towers should wear approved fall protection equipment. Helpers on the ground should wear hard hats to protect against anything dropped from the tower. Turn Off the transmitter and and disconnect the transmission line before beginning work on an antenna. Radio Frequency Safety B Q Page 74 Exhaminer L09b RF energy in large amounts affects body tissue by heating it and the Eyes are most likely to be damaged. UHF and Microwave frequencies are the most damaging and their indoor antennas should be located as far as possible away from living spaces that may be occupied when you are transmitting. Handheld transceiver antennas should be positioned away from heads and away from others when transmitting. Directional antennas with high gain should be mounted higher than nearby structures so they do not direct RF energy to people in those structures. Dipole antennas should have their ends and centres as high as possible to prevent people coming in contact with them

25 Chapter 4 Electronic Circuits and Components Amplifier Fundamentals B Q Page 74 Exhaminer L07 An Amplifier can amplify Voltage, Current or Power. It will not amplify resistance Linear amplifiers will amplify a signal without distortion. If an amplifier goes non-linear the output will be distorted. An Audio Amplifier can increase the level of a weak signal from a microphone. 25 An RF Amplifier can increase the level of a weak signal from an antenna. Gain is the amount an amplifier will increase the level of a signal, often expressed in Decibels, db Diodes B Q Page 75 Exhaminer L07 Rectification is the action of changing alternating current to direct current. Diodes have two electrodes, the Cathode and the Anode. Electrons will only flow from the cathode to the anode. If an alternating current is applied to the anode you would expect to see pulsating direct current at the cathode Bias. Since a current will only flow from the cathode to the anode a diode is regarded as being Forward Biased. Demodulation is the term for recovering information from transmitted signals. This is an important use for diodes. Zener Diodes are used for voltage regulation and may be found in power supplies. LEDs (Light Emitting Diodes) are semi-conductor devices that glow different colours depending on the chemical compositions used in their manufacture. Semi-Conductors, Bi-Polar Transistors B Q Page 75 Exhaminer L07 Transistors are solid-state amplifying devices which use semi-conductor materials to provide amplification. They operate on low voltages 5-12V and are mechanically robust. Heat damage They will be damaged by excessive heat, generated either internally or externally, so heat sinks (metal radiator fins) or fans are frequently used to cool them. Take care not to overheat when soldering them, or other semi-conductor components. Leads: All transistors have three leads ( electrodes) and the names of these are different for the two major types of transistor, Bipolar and Field Effect (FET) Electrode names: In a bi-polar transistor the electrodes are the Emitter, Base, Collector These correspond most closely to the Triode Vacuum tube's Cathode, Grid, Plate (Anode) Bi-Polar transistors can be PNP or NPN (NPN= Negative-Positive-Negative). A PNP or NPN device is a transistor. Memory aid Bi-Polar Baseball Players Emitter-Pitcher, Base-Batter, Collector-Catcher Field Effect Transistors (FETs) B Q Page 75 Exhaminer L07 The semiconductor device that most resembles a Triode Vacuum Tube is a Field Effect Transistor N and P Channel are the two basic types of Field Effect Transistors. Leads. The charge carriers enter the channel at the Source, are controlled by the Gate and leave by the Drain. Reducing Current in a FET is done by increasing the Reverse Bias voltage Similar Characteristics The Source and Drain exhibit fairly similar characteristics. Type Terminal Correspondence: Triode Vacuum Tube Cathode Grid Plate (Anode) Bi-polar Transistor Emitter Base Collector Field Effect Transistor Source Gate Drain No.1 in each case is the source of the electrons (charge carriers). No.2 is the Control. No.3 exit for electrons. Memory Aid: Water flowing through a Field, from the Source to a Drain, controlled by a Gate

26 26 Vacuum Tubes B Q Page 76 Exhaminer L07 Before semi-conductors were invented vacuum tubes were used as rectifiers and to amplify signals A Vacuum Tube Triode can amplify small signals but needs hundreds of volts to operate. Higher Power: A triode vacuum tube can be used instead of transistors to handle higher power in amplifiers. The Plate (Anode) is the electrode that is operated with the highest positive potential (voltage) The Filament (heater) is the element that is furthest away from the Plate. The Grid is usually a cylinder of wire mesh which acts as the control element. There is only one grid in a Triode The Cathode is the electrode that emits electrons. A vacuum tube diode has a number of electrodes in a vacuum, usually an evacuated glass tube. When the Cathode is heated it gives off a cloud of electrons which are negatively charged. On applying a high positive voltage to the Anode (Plate) the electrons are attracted to the positively charged electrode so there is a one way flow of current from cathode to anode. This is a Vacuum Tube Diode and since current can only flow one way it can be used as a Rectifier. Vacuum Tube Diode Anode Electrons The diagram shows a directly heated cathode but usually there is a separate heating filament as shown in the Triode diagram Free electrons Triode: A triode has another electrode in the form of a grid, screen or cylinder of wire mesh placed in between the cathode and anode. If the grid has a negative charge (Bias Voltage) it will repel electrons and little current or no current will pass through its holes to the positive plate since current will not flow from negative to negative poles. If the grid negative voltage is reduced a little, the current flow from cathode to anode will increase greatly. The result is that very small changes in the charge applied to the Grid will control large changes in the current from cathode to anode. This allows it to act as an amplifiier Filament supply Triode Tube In a Triode The plate is the ele ctrode at the highest positive potential. The grid is the control electrode, it is usually a cylinder of wire mesh The heating filament is the electrode farthest away from the plate. The cathode is the electrode that emits electrons. There is only one grid in a Triode. Other vacuum tubes have more grids e. g. tetrodes, pentodes. Solid State Integrated Circuit ( IC) Transistors using semi-conductor materials were the first amplifiers other than vacuum tubes. They are classed as Solid State components in contrast to vacuum tubes or devices using ionized gases or moving parts. Integrated Circuit Chip Solid state components have now been developed into integrated circuits in which networks of transistors, diodes, resistors and capacitors form complete circuits within a single IC chip.

27 Resistor values B Q Page 76 Exhaminer L02 Resistors are most commonly made of carbon and provide resistance to the flow of electricity by dissipating energy as heat. Besides being made in specific ohm values they come in different power ratings. A large resistor with the same ohm value as a smaller one is likely to have a greater power rating since it has a greater surface area to dissipate the heat. A temperature increase will affect the resistance of a carbon resistor, the value of which will change depending on the resistor s temperature coefficient rating. Memorizing the Resistor Colour Code is not necessary but you must know how to read it. The Colour Band Code marked on a resistor gives the specific Ohm value and the tolerance The first three bands are the resistance value in ohms with the third band giving the number of zeros. The Tolerance in percent is given by the right hand (4th) colour band. A resistor of 100 ohms with a tolerance of 10% (silver) would be between 90 and 110 ohms A 5% tolerance resistor s value will be much closer to the marked value than a 20% one. 27 Tolerance Gold 5% +/- Silver 10% +/- None 20% + / Black Brown Red Orange Yellow Green Blue Violet Grey White A resistor with colour bands reading from left to right ; Red, Violet, Yellow and with no 4th band would have a value of 270,000 Ohms which is 270 kilohms with a tolerance of 20% i.e. from 216 to 324 kilohms If you want resistors to provide a very accurate and predictable ratio in a voltage divider you would choose resistors with a tolerance of 0.1 % rather than 5%, 10% or 20% If you want to memorize the code, which is not necessary, one mnemonic is: Black Bears Raid Our Young Green Beans Vines, Growling Wildly

28 28 PAGE Chapter 5 Basic Electronics and Theory Electricity and Radio Waves Explanatory Matter is composed of atoms of which there are more than a hundred types known as elements. An atom is the smallest particle which retains the physical and chemical structure of an element. Electrons are sub-atomic particles which form a cloud around the nucleus of atoms and for our purposes they can be regarded as negatively charged packets of energy which can be moved from atom to atom. Electricity is what we call the flow of electrons from atom to atom. We deal with electron flow (electricity) within the radios and power supplies. Antennas resonate when excited by electrons at a certain frequency and give off radio waves Radio waves are electromagnetic energy fields which oscillate at radio frequencies. We deal with radio waves when we consider antennas and propagation. Energy fields are difficult to visualize but a familiar one is the static magnetic field around a permanent magnet. Static electric fields can cause hair to stand on end and lint to be attracted to a comb. Metric Prefixes B Q Page Exhaminer L02, L03a, L03b, L04 To avoid writing large numbers of zeros when describing components, frequencies, or other values, we use the metric prefixes, : 10 kilovolts (kv) instead of 10,000 volts The table below has the most common prefixes used in radio The easy conversion is to move the decimal point in multiples of three places to the left or right as required.. Each prefix is a step of three decimal points greater than the one below. This works for all except centi, the odd one out, which is only one hundredth of the unit value. All the others are in multiples of three decimal places. symbol A Memory Aid that may be useful is to think of the steps as a family alternating boys and girls Giga 1,000,000, G Gig Mega 1,000, M Meg Kilo 1, k Kyle Unit 1.0 No Prefix Una Centi C Kent Milli m Milly Micro.000, μ Mike Nano.000,000, n Nan Pico.000,000,000, p Pico Convert 714, 000,000 Micro farads to farads, this is two prefix steps. Micro to Milli is one prefix step so we move the decimal point three places to the left = 714,000 Next step; Milli to Unit, move decimal point another three places, answer = 714 farads. Notice we are not including Centi in counting the steps since it does not fall into the sequence of three decimal places. You just have to remember Centi is one hundreth of unit value so if you need the answer, say in Centimetres convert to metres and multiply by 100. Scientific notation can be confusing ; 100 is written 10 2 meaning the decimal point has shifted two places to the right from 1.0 (unity) 10 4 = 10,000, the decimal point has shifted to the right four places from unity 10-2 the decimal place has shifted to the left two places from unity giving 0.01 PAGE 95 HAS A METRIC CONVERSION QUIZ WHICH CAN BE COMPLETED IN CLASS.

29 29 Current, Voltage, Resistance, Conductance B Q Page 77 Exhaminer L02 Conductors. Substances which permit electron flow are known as conductors. Most conductors are metals. Four good electrical conductors are gold, silver, copper and aluminium. Copper is the best of those commonly used for wires. A good conductor will have low resistance to the flow of electrons Insulators are materials that do not let electricity flow through them. Four good insulators are glass, air, plastic, and porcelain. Other insulators are mica, rubber, paper and dry wood A good analogy for electricity flow through a wire is to picture water flowing through a hose A large hose will have a large current or volume of water flowing. Electrical Current The rate of flow of electrons is also called current. It is measured in Amperes or Amps I is the symbol for Amps. which comes from Intensité the French for current. Voltage, also called Electromotive Force (EMF) is measured in Volts, symbol E, This forces electrons through a wire like pressure forces water through a hose. Resistance is measured in Ohms (and the symbol for resistance is R. Resistance slows the flow of electrons like a restriction in a hose slows the flow of water. Resistors are made in specific Ohm values. They are commonly made of carbon and provide resistance by dissipating energy as heat, Voltage Drop is the voltage measured across the terminals of a component like a resistor. All conductors have some resistance resulting in a voltage drop which is greater for greater lengths of wire An increase in Voltage will cause more Current to flow. An increase in Resistance causes less Current to flow. Conductance is the reciprocal of resistance. Temperature changes will change the resistance of a conductor to an extent determined by its design. Electrical power B Q Page 77 Exhaminer L02, L03a The basic electrical circuit consists of a Source, Switch and Load in a continuous path for current to flow. An Open Circuit is where there is no path, like when the switch is opened. A Closed Circuit is when the switch is closed to provide a path for the current Current through the circuit is limited by the resistance of the load which may be a light bulb, a motor, a heater, etc. Fuse Closed Circuit switch A fuse should be installed as close as possible to the battery as possible to guard against an overcurrent situation A fuse is usually a thin wire in a glass or ceramic tube which will overheat and break if there is too much current. A short circuit: This circuit draws too much current which may cause a fire since there is no fuse to open the circuit before damage is done. Short Circuit A Circuit Breaker does the same job as a fuse except it is re-settable whereas a fuse has to be replaced. Any fuse or circuit breaker must be correctly sized, (e.g. 5 amps) so that it will open before the rest of the circuit is damaged Power is the rate at which electrical energy is used. A Watt is the unit of electrical power. Multiply volts by amps in a circuit to get the power consumed. Volts multiplied by Amps gives you Watts. In a circuit where the voltage is 12 Volts and there is 10 Amps of current flowing, the power used is 120 Watts Of light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and100 watts, the 100 watt one will use electrical energy fastest. Power rating. Resistors come in different power ratings and usually a larger one will handle more power since it can dissipate heat more readily. A resistor that becomes hot and starts to burn is dissipating too much power.

30 30 Ohms Law B Q Page 77 Exhaminer L03a E = Electromotive force ( EMF), measured in Volts. I = Intensité, French term for Current, measured in Amperes or Amps R = Resistance measured in Ohms (often shown as Ω) OHM'S LAW: This is the relationship between Volts, Amps and Ohms in a circuit Ohms Law states E = I x R Volts = Amps multiplied by Ohms If we know two of the values in the circuit we can find the third. Current: (Amps) I = E Resistance (Ohms) R = E R R An aid to remembering Ohm s Law is this diagram Given two of the terms, to find the value of the third one; using the diagram, hold a finger over the one you want and insert the values of the other two. For example; if you have the Voltage and Amperage of a circuit and want to find the Resistance hold a finger over R and your answer is Volts divided by Amps. You would insert the actual values in Volts, Ohms or Amps. Resistors in Series and Parallel B Q Page 78 Exhaminer L03a A series circuit is shown in the diagram. The same current flows through each resistor in turn. Resistors in Series Just add the values of the resistors together to get the total resistance Total resistance is = 50 Ohms If 100V is applied to the circuit the current through the circuit can be worked out by Ohms law : 100 V = 2 Amps 50 Ω With a current through R1 of 2 amps the voltage drop across it will be 2 x 20 = 40 volts. The voltage drop across R2 will also be 40 volts The voltage drop across R3 will be 20 volts Adding up to a total voltage drop across the circuit of 100 volts Ω Ω Ω R1 R2 R3 Resistors in Parallel R1 R2 R3 R T is the total resistance = 1 1 = 2 R1 R2 R3 R T Total resistance of resistors in parallel is always smaller than the smallest resistance If you have four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel the total resistance is 68 divided by 4 = 17 ohms In a parallel circuit the total current is equal to the sum of the currents in each branch. In series, the current is the same for each resistor = 4 = 1 If 1 = 1 Then R T = RT In parallel, the voltage is the same for each. The current in a parallel circuit breaks up, with some flowing along each parallel branch and recombining when the branches meet again. If you have two resistors of 1000 ohms each connected in parallel the total resistance will be 1000 = 500 ohms. With 40 Volts applied the current will be 40 = 0.8 A = 800 milliamps 2 500

31 Power Law B Q Page 78 Exhaminer L03a Power is measured in Watts (W) W = E x I Power (Watts) = Volts x Amps For example you are given the Resistance and Current in a circuit and want to find out the Power consumed. You know that Power W = E x I and you have I (the current) and R (the resistance), but you need to find E. Go to Ohms Law and you get E = I x R So in the Power equation you can substitute I x R instead of E. This changes the power equation from E x I to I x I x R = I 2 x R giving your answer in Watts. A large size resistor will usually dissipate more power than a smaller one of the same resistance value. Find the power used by a 12V DC light bulb drawing 0.2 Amps. 0.2 x 12 = 2.4 watts If you replaced a 50 ohm resistor with two 100 ohm resistors of similar power rating in parallel, the circuit would have the same resistance but the the power it could handle would be doubled. A circuit with two 500 Ohm 1 watt resistors in series can dissipate the same power as a circuit with these resistors in parallel With a voltage of 10V,, a resistance of 2 Ohms gives a current of 5A so the power would be10v x 5A = 50 watts. If you double the volts to 20V the current would double to 10A so the power would be 20V x 10A = 200 watts, a 4 times increase. Two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery. As the resistors are in series the total resistance is 20 ohms. By Ohms law you would find the current in amps by dividing 10 by 20 which gives you 0.5 amps. To get the power draw in watts multiply volts by amps; 0.5 x 10 = 5 watts Frequency and Wavelength B Q Page 79 Exhaminer L03b Frequency describes the number of times a wave oscillates per second. It is measured in cycles per second (cps) also called Hertz (Hz) (60 cps = 60 Hz), SOUND WAVES are vibrations in a medium like air or water. Sound does not travel through a vacuum like space Audio frequencies are sound waves in the range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz that the human ear can sense The higher limit often decreases with age. A 60-year old may hear a maximum of 16,000 Hz. Voice frequencies are sound waves in the range between 300 and 3000 Hertz. RADIO WAVES are ElectroMagnetic waves that oscillate more than 20,000 times per second (20 KHz) as they travel at the speed of light 300,000 kilometres per second. Radio waves are part of the electromagnetic spectrum, radiation which travels freely through the vacuum of space. Radio frequencies range from 20kHz to the Super High Frequencies (SHF) of 3-30 GHz in the Microwave band. 31 The wavelength diagram does not represent an actual wave. It is a graph of amplitude (vertical axis) against time (horizontal axis). Since the waves always travel at the speed of light the time axis can also be marked to show the distance the wave would travel (wavelength) during one oscillation at a given frequency. Wavelength (λ) is the distance the wave travels during each cycle from peak to peak. It is usually measured in metres for radio waves. Wavelength (λ) in metres equals 300 divided by frequency in Megahertz Frequency in Megahertz equals 300 divided by Wavelength in metres Higher frequency, shorter wavelength. Lower frequency, longer wavelength. Harmonics are frequencies which are multiples of the fundamental frequency. Care must be taken with a transmission that its harmonics do not cause interference to others. Time

32 32 Decibels B Q Page 79 Exhaminer L06a Decibels are used to measure the ratio between levels of electrical power In radio and telecommunications. The decibel scale is a logarithmic one used to account for the gains and losses of a signal from a transmitter to a receiver. A two-time increase in power results in a change of 3dB higher. Decrease your transmitter s power by 3dB by dividing the original power by 2. Increase your transmitter s power by 6dB by multiplying the original power by 4. If a signal strength report is 10dB over S-9 for a transmitter power of 1500 watts, reducing the power to 150 watts would give a reported signal strength of S9 If a 9dB gain amplifier is added to a 2 watt handheld transceiver the power output of the combination would be 16 db. Inductors and Capacitors B Q Page 80 Exhaminer L04 Inductors: Electrons moving through a wire will create a magnetic field around it. Energy is stored in the magnetic field The magnetic field will be stronger if the wire is wound into a coil and stronger still if it is wound around a permeable core, which concentrates the magnetic field. Inductance is the intensity of the magnetic field. It is measured in Henrys, symbol L. Inductors are coils of wire with specific values of inductance. A Choke is another name for an inductor. The amount of inductance is influenced by a number of factors: The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil. Before the current can flow freely it first has to build up the magnetic field so the current is delayed behind the voltage (lags). We say that the current and voltage are out of phase. AC and DC An inductor retards the passage of AC but passes DC. When the source of electrons is removed, the magnetic field collapses almost immediately. Inductors in Series and Parallel Inductors in Series. Inductors are not resistors but are added similarly to resistors in a series circuit. Series Lt = L1 + L2 + Ln Series Lt is the total inductance Inductors in Parallel are added similarly to resistors as shown by the equation Parallel 1 = L t L1 L2 Ln Parallel L t is the total inductance B Capacitors continued next page

33 B continued Q Page 80 Exhaminer L04 Capacitors A capacitor has 2 conductive plates, separated by a non conductive material, and it stores energy in an electric field between the plates. Electrons gather on one plate (negative charge) leaving other plate with a deficiency of electrons (positive charge). Think of a capacitor as a temporary storage battery. 33 Farads are the unit of capacitance, symbol C. Memory Aid; Two A s in capacitor and two A s in Farad Capacitance of capacitors is determined by: The material between the plates, the plates surface area, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates. AC and DC: Capacitors will pass AC and block DC since the plates will charge up in one direction and when the AC reverses they will discharge and build up the field in the other direction. When DC is applied to a capacitor it will charge up to the voltage of the source and electrons will then cease to flow A capacitor retains its charge after disconnection from a circuit and at high voltage can give a shock to the unwary. Capacitors in Series and Parallel Capacitors in series are added in the opposite way to inductors and resistors Series 1 = Ct is the total capacitance Ct C1 C2 Cn The total capacitance of two capacitors in series is always less than the smallest capacitor Series Parallel Ct = C1 + C2 +...Cn In parallel you just add the values together Parallel Reactance and Impedance B Q Page 80 Exhaminer L04 Capacitors and Inductors each store and release energy, though in different ways Capacitors store energy in an electric field while Inductors store energy in a magnetic field and they react in opposite ways to frequency changes. They do not dissipate energy like resistors. Capacitive Reactance ( Symbol X c ) is the property of capacitors which opposes AC and as the frequency increases the capacitive reactance will decrease. Capacitors have low reactance at high frequencies Inductive Reactance ( Symbol X L ) is the property of Inductors which opposes AC and as the frequency increases the reactance will increase. Inductors have high reactance at high frequencies Impedance is the total combination of inductive reactance, capacitive reactance and resistance in a circuit. It is measured in Ohms. LCR Circuits are circuits with Inductance, Capacitance and Resistance. A coil wound on a ferrite core can mitigate the effects of an offending radio signal by its high reactance to RF A RF choke coil has little effect on signals meant to flow through it as it has low reactance at low frequencies. A RF Bypass Capacitor on an audio circuit can divert an offending radio signal by its low reactance to RF. A RF Bypass Capacitor will have little effect on an audio circuit since it has high reactance at low frequencies.

34 34 Transformers B Q Page 81 Exhaminer L04 Permanent Magnets are made of steel or alloys. Electro-magnets have soft iron cores that change their magnetism easily. Unlike magnetic poles attract each other and like poles repel each other. Electrons moving through a coil of wire create a magnetic field. Electromagnets are a coil surrounding a permeable core and have a magnetic field only while current is flowing Magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the current in a conductor. A Coil moving through a fixed magnetic field will have a current induced into it. A Changing magnetic field will induce current flow in a coil of wire in the field. Voltage is greatest when the movement is perpendicular to the lines of force when the current is going through its greatest rate of change. A Transformer is two or more inductors sharing a common magnetic field. The AC in the transformer primary coil creates a changing magnetic field. The changing magnetic field induces a current in the secondary coil. The two coils are not connected except by the shared magnetic field. Step-Up Transformer When a DC current is passed through a coil of wire, a static magnetic field is created. Since the field is static and not changing it does not induce a current into another coil. This is the reason why transformers cannot be used with DC. Permeability is the ability of a substance to carry a magnetic field and differs for different materials. Many transformers have a laminated iron core of high permeability Magnetizing Current : At no load, a transformer draws a small magnetizing current from the source. On applying a load to the secondary winding, a current is drawn by the load, and the primary then draws more current. The Ratio of Voltage in the primary winding to that in the secondary winding is the same ratio as the number of turns of wire in the primary is to the number of turns in the secondary. Secondary voltage. more turns, more voltage Transformers are frequently used to change a voltage up or down. Power-in and Power-out remains roughly the same. If the voltage is stepped down the secondary current must go up. If the voltage is stepped up the secondary current must go down. Load Some power is lost as heat as transformers are not 100% efficient and the heat loss is shown by warm laminations. If a Primary of 10 turns is supplied with 12 V. a Secondary of 100 turns produces 120 V. in a step-up transformer Resonance B Q Page 81 Exhaminer L04 Resonance occurs in a circuit containing Inductance, Capacitance and Resistance. This is an LCR Circuit, the components of which can be in series or parallel Resonant Frequency depends on the values of the L and C components. When frequency increases, capacitive reactance decreases. When frequency increases inductive reactance increases. Both Series and Parallel LCR circuits will be resonant when : Capacitive Reactance X c = X L Inductive Reactance There can be only one frequency of resonance for given values of L and C A Series LCR Circuit has Minimum Impedance at resonance It can be used as a Band pass filter. A Parallel LCR Circuit has Maximum Impedance at Resonance Series RLC circuit Parallel RLC circuit Tuned Circuits are Resonant Circuits which are used in many applications; Selecting Signal Frequencies, Oscillators, Antenna Traps, Filters, etc. Resistance is always present in circuits but changes in resistance will not change the resonant frequency.

35 35 Series LCR Circuit Explanatory (not in question bank) When an alternating current signal is applied to a series resonant circuit the voltage is delayed passing through the capacitor as it builds up the electrical field, then in turn the current is delayed as it passes through the inductor building up the magnetic field. If the capacitive reactance and the inductive reactance are of the same value (i.e. at resonance) the magnetic and electrical delay factors cancel out, the line current is maximum and the signal appears to pass unchanged through the circuit. This is good for only one frequency, the resonant frequency. Parallel LCR Circuit When a signal is applied to a parallel resonant circuit the voltage component starts charging up the capacitor while the current builds up the magnetic field around the inductor. If the signal is at the resonant frequency, just as each field is about to reach its maximum the flow reverses to build each field in the opposite direction. The net effect is that the signal is occupied in building and reversing the fields and mostly does not pass through the circuit. Capacitive reactance and inductive reactance change with frequency but in opposite ways, as with a change in frequency one decreases while the other increases so there is only one frequency a LCR circuit is resonant at. Selectivity Q The Selectivity or Q of an LCR circuit is a measure of how wide or narrow its bandwidth is. A higher Q is more selective and has a narrower bandwidth. The selectivity of an LCR circuit depends on the amount of resistance in it but changing the resistance does not change the resonant frequency. More resistance in series makes it less selective (lower Q) and broadens the bandwidth. Smaller value of resistance in circuit Larger series resistance in circuit wider bandwidth Meters B Q Page 82 Exhaminer L02 A Voltmeter can measure the potential difference in Volts across a component in a circuit or the voltage of a power supply. It is placed in parallel with the component and acts in a circuit like a very high value resistance. An Ammeter measures the flow of current in Amps in a circuit and is placed in series with the load. It acts as a very low value resistance in a circuit. An Ohmmeter measures resistance in Ohms by being placed in parallel with the component to be tested. Never try to measure resistance in a live circuit since It uses an internal battery to measure resistance and a live circuit could damage it. A Multimeter combines the Voltmeter, Ammeter and Ohmmeter in one instrument. It has a selector knob to select various ranges for AC Volts, DC Volts, Amps, Ohms and may also have other functions that can be selected. Voltmeter V Load A Ammeter Digital Multimeter Care must be taken to select the correct Mode and Range and to correctly apply the leads to the circuit.

36 36 Chapter 6 Transmission Lines and Antennas Transmission Lines B Q Page 82 Exhaminer L06b A Transmission Line / Feedline connects a transceiver to an antenna. Each type of transmission line has a: Characteristic Impedance: This is equal to the pure resistance which if connected to the end of the line would absorb all the power arriving along it. The characteristic impedance is determined by the physical dimensions of the conductors and their distance apart. It can be the same for different diameters of line. It does not depend on the velocity of energy in the line Length of the transmission line does not affect its characteristic impedance, so it can be cut to any length. But; if an impedance terminating a transmission line is different from its characteristic impedance some value of impedance influenced by line length will appear at the input of the line. Propagation Delay is a property of transmission lines which is not found in ordinary communications circuits. Propagation Delay is also known as the Velocity Factor (VF). Coaxial cable s VF can be lower than 0.7 while open wire ladderline can be above The closer the VF is to 1.0 the lower the attenuation losses. Coaxial Cable and Parallel Conductor are the two common types of transmission line. Coaxial Cable s characteristic impedance is determined by the ratio of the diameter of the inner conductor to the diameter of the outer shield Parallel Conductor characteristic impedance is determined by the distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors Coaxial Cable Parallel Conductor types of line Balanced and Unbalanced Feedlines B Q Page 83 Exhaminer L06b A Balanced transmission line is made up of two parallel wires. One type is: Open-Wire Line made of two parallel conductors held apart at intervals by insulating rods. Parallel conductor lines do not work well when tied to grounded metal objects, may need a Balun and may need an impedance matching device at the transceiver. An Unbalanced transmission line has one conductor connected to ground. Coaxial Cable is the most common type of unbalanced line. It has a central conductor surrounded by insulation and a braided outer shield conductor. It is weatherproof, its impedance matches most amateur antennas and it can be used near metal objects A Balun is used to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line. The term Balun comes from Balanced-to-Unbalanced. To feed a dipole antenna with coaxial cable you would install a balun between the coax and the antenna. A 4:1 Impedance Transformer could be used to match a 75-ohm line to the 300-ohm feedpoint of an antenna Baluns can take many forms and may include an Impedance Transformer but need not do so. Typical impedances of transmission lines are : Amateur Radio coax 52 ohm. TV receiver coax 75 ohms. Open wire ladder line ohms. Window Line 450 or 600 ohms. TV Twin-Lead 300 ohms.

37 37 Connectors, Transmission Line Selection B Q Page 83 Exhaminer L06b A PL-259 connector would be used to join RG-213 coaxial cable to a HF transceiver. An SMA Connector frequently joins a handheld transceiver to its antenna. Type-N connectors have the lowest loss at UHF. RG-213 coaxial cable has the least loss of the common RG types of coax, RG-58, RG-174, RG-59 Antenna connectors should be regularly cleaned and tightened to keep their contact resistance to a minimum. Coaxial cable can be used near grounded metal objects and can be buried directly in ground for some distance. TV Twin-Lead transmission line has an impedance of 300 ohms and can be used in an amateur station. PL-259 also called a UHF connector is used on most HF - VHF - UHF base and mobile transceivers. The matching socket is SO-239. SMA connectors are small and found as antenna connectors on some handhelds Type N is the best for low loss and accurate impedance. The relative sizes of the connectors shown are approximately correct BNC connectors are a quick connect bayonet type used on test equipment and some handhelds. This Tee shows both male and female ends. Transmission Line Losses B Q Page 84 Exhaminer L06b Signal Loss occurs in every transmission line and it increases as the length increases. Signal loss will result in less RF power being radiated from the antenna. It is expressed in db per unit length Frequency affects signal loss ; as frequency increases the signal loss also increases. Open-Wire line is the lowest loss transmission line on HF. Parallel conductor line will operate with high SWR and has less loss than coaxial cable. Shortening excess coaxial cable to the minimum length necessary will reduce the signal loss. Increasing coaxial cable length from 20 metres to 40 metres would increase the line loss by 100%

38 38 SWR B Q Page 84 Exhaminer L06b Standing Wave Ratio (SWR) measures the degree of match between transmission line and antenna by comparing the forward and reflected voltage. It is the ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a transmission line. The characteristic impedance of the transmission line must match the antenna input impedance or the result will be standing waves produced in the transmission line. Standing waves on the transmission line will give reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna. Perfect SWR ratio is 1:1 A SWR reading of less than 1.5 : 1 is a fairly good impedance match. A Jumpy SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between parts of the antenna system. A Very High SWR reading may mean the antenna is the wrong length for the operating frequency or the transmission line may be open or short circuited. The SWR meter shown has one needle for Forward Power and one for Reflected Power. The SWR reading is taken from where the two needles cross. Other styles of SWR meters may have graphic or LCD displays Impedance Matching B Q Page 85 Exhaminer L06b Efficient transfer of power from a transceiver to an antenna requires matching of impedances. A source will deliver maximum power to a load when the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source. An Antenna Tuner is used to match a transceiver to a mismatched antenna system. It can allow use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for. It is an impedance-matching device. Length of the Transmission Line will have no effect if the antenna is correctly matched to the transceiver. The Ratio required to match a 300 ohm impedance dipole antenna to a 50 ohm RG-58U coaxial line is: 6:1

39 Polarization B Q Page 85 Electromagnetic waves are composed of coupled electric and magnetic waves which are polarized at right angles to each other. Antenna polarization always refers to the electric field so when we say an antenna is horizontally polarized it means the electric field is parallel to the earth's surface Exhaminer L08 39 Yagi Antennas with their elements parallel to the earth s surface are horizontally polarized. A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is mounted vertically, i.e perpendicular to the Earth s surface. An Isotropic antenna is a hypothetical point source which radiates equally in all directions with an antenna radiation pattern of a sphere. It does not exist but is used as a reference to which real antenna gain is compared. The gain of an antenna over an isotropic is given in dbi decibels, where the i refers to isotropic. Antenna Gain is the numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna. Vertical polarization means the electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface. Polarity of a signal received by ground wave will be the same from transmitter to receiver. Vertically polarized signals like those from a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received by a vertically polarized receiving antenna. A Horizontally polarized antenna will receive horizontally polarized signals at greater strength than would a vertically polarized receiving antenna. This is the radiation pattern for a vertical dipole antenna. in free space, which is a wavelength or higher above the ground. The closer an antenna is to the ground the more its radiation pattern tends to be reflected upwards.

40 40 Wavelength vs Physical length B Q Page 86 Exhaminer L08 Radio Waves travel at the speed of light 300,000 kilometres per second Wavelength is the distance a wave travels in one complete wave cycle. The higher the frequency the shorter the wavelength as it will complete one wave cycle in a shorter time. Antennas will radiate most efficiently when their lengths are tuned to the wavelength of the applied frequency. Lengthening an antenna will decrease its resonant frequency. Adding a series inductance (coil) to an antenna will have the effect of lengthening it. Shortening an antenna will increase its resonant frequency. Insulators are used at the ends of a suspended wire antenna to limit the electrical length of the antenna. Multiband antennas may use traps to allow use on a number of frequency bands. A Trap consists of a coil and capacitor in parallel. Traps are Parallel LCR circuits resonant at the shorter band wavelengths and placed appropriately so the antenna resonates along its full length for the longer wavelengths but the traps limit the electrical length for the shorter wavelength bands. The symbol for wavelength is λ, Alpha. To convert wavelength to frequency in MHz divide λ into 300 To convert MHz to wavelength divide the frequency into 300 The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 2 MHz is 300 = 150 metres 2 The frequency corresponding to a wavelength of 12 metres is 300 = 25 MHz 12 Gain, Directivity, Radiation Patterns, Bandwidth B Q Page 86 Exhaminer L08 A Parasitic Beam antenna is one like a Yagi, where the Reflector and Director get their radio energy by radiation from the driven element. Bandwidth is the range of frequencies an antenna will respond to. Bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna can be increased by using larger diameter elements. Front to Back ratio gives the ratio of maximum forward signal strength of the antenna to the maximum strength in the back direction. Gain compares the numerical signal strength of an antenna to a reference antenna. The gain is quoted in dbi where i stands for Isotropic. A half wave dipole will have approximately 2.1 dbi gain over an isotropic radiator Reflector Yagi antenna Driven element Boom Director Forward Direction The radiation pattern of a half-wave dipole in free space is maximum broadside to it and minimum from the ends. If a parasitic element slightly shorter than a horizontal dipole and 0.1 λ away from it, is placed parallel to it and at the same height a major radiation lobe will develop from the dipole toward the parasitic element. This describes the action of the director in a horizontal Yagi antenna but also applies to a wire dipole. If a parasitic element slightly longer than a horizontal dipole and 0.1 λ away from it, is placed parallel to it and at the same height a major radiation lobe will develop from the dipole away from the parasitic element. The reflector in a Yagi does this. Azimuth radiation pattern of a Yagi antenna Elevation radiation pattern of Yagi Minor Lobe Major Lobe Null

41 Vertical Antennas B Q Page 87 Exhaminer L08 Vertical antennas like whip antennas are essentially dipoles stood on end. The whip is one half of the dipole and the ground plane supplies the the other half. A Ground Plane for a 1/4 wave vertical antenna may be the ground, metal screen, mesh, plate, or rod radials 1/4 wavelength long. The feed point impedance would theoretically be 36 ohms Downward sloping radials will increase the feedpoint impedance to bring it closer to the desired 50 ohms. Magnetic bases are often used to temporarily attach antennas to car roofs. The magnetic base has no effect on the signal. 50 ohms coaxial cable will give the best match to a quarter-wave ground plane antenna. A Loading Coil is often used with an HF mobile antenna to tune out capacitive reactance. 5/8 wavelength antennas are better then 1/4 wave antennas for VHF or UHF since they have more gain and the angle of radiation is low. Vertical antennas radiate equally well in all horizontal directions and receive from all compass points around. Antenna length calculation - this will recur in a number of the following sections Antennas are often a fraction of a wavelength long, e.g a half or quarter wavelength. To calculate the length of an antenna start by dividing 300 by 2 for half λ, or by 4 for quarter λ Open-ended antennas like dipoles must then have the calculated length reduced by 5%. Loops are not reduced by 5%. We divide the result by the frequency ( ) in MHz to get the length of the antenna Quarter wave vertical antenna with rod radials Example: a half wavelength λ vertical antenna for 223 MHz; 300 = 150 ; 150 x.95 = ; = Answer 0.64 metres or 64 cm The multiple choice answers may not be exactly as you calculate, choose the closest number to your calculation. 41 Yagi Antenna B Q Page 87 Exhaminer L08 Yagi Antenna: Most popular directional antenna. Simple to construct, it can be vertically or horizontally polarised. It is directional since it has Gain in the forward direction and a high Front-to-Back ratio. This helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind. To get maximum performance from a Yagi you should optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements. Spacing between the elements on a 3-element Yagi should be about 0.2 of a wavelength. The Driven Element on Yagis is usually a half wave dipole so you would calculate the length in the way given in the previous section including reducing it by 5% since the element is open ended. The Reflector is 5% longer than the driven element and the Director is 5% shorter than the driven element. Wide element spacing on a Yagi will have high gain, less critical spacing and wider bandwidth. Stacking two six-element Yagis each with 10 dbi gain would double the gain (remember 2x = 3dB) so total gain is 13 dbi. Increasing the length of a yagi boom will increase the gain by narrowing the radiated beam but the front to back ratio will not change. As you narrow the beam it has the effect of squeezing the radiation pattern from side to side elongating it but the ratio between forward and back will not change. Very little power is radiated backwards anyway. Yagis only have one driven element and one reflector but may have a number of directors. Director spacing is usually from 0.2 to 0.5λ so a longer boom will have more directors but it is the length not the number of directors that increases gain. Most Yagis have an feedpoint impedance of 20-25Ω.and need an impedance matching network. The gain of a 6-element yagi can be 10 dbi or more. They are frequently mounted so they can be rotated to point it in a desired direction.

42 42 Wire Antennas B Q Page 88 Exhaminer L08 A Random Wire antenna is an unbalanced antenna which is put up any way you can. Impedance and radiation pattern are unpredictable It must be longer than one wavelength at any frequency selected. Random Wire antenna An Automatic Antenna Tuner is necessary to use it on multiple HF bands. The tuner, transceiver and station equipment are part of the antenna system so RF feedback may be present at the station and burns from contacting equipment when transmitting are possible. Dipole The most common type of antenna is a dipole Folded Dipole Half wavelength A Dipole s total length is usually a half wavelength and it is fed in the middle so each pole is a quarter wavelength long. The total length has to be reduced by 4 to 5% to allow for capacitive effects at the ends. The feedpoint impedance of a half wave dipole installed a λ or higher above the ground is 73 ohms. The low angle radiation pattern of a HF dipole parallel to the earth in free space is a figure of 8, perpendicular to the antenna. A dipole with the ends pointing North and South will radiate mostly to the East and West. Traps may be used on a dipole to enable multiband operation but if traps are used it can radiate harmonics more readily A Folded Dipole is the same as the dipole but with another half wavelength wire run parallel to it and joined at each end to the ends of the dipole. Impedance is about 300 ohms, four times that of a dipole. Bandwidth is wider than a dipole. Loop / Quad antennas B Q Page 88 Exhaminer L08 A loop antenna is a one wavelength loop of wire which may be arranged in a square, circle or triangle. A square one will have each side 1/4 λ long and could also be arranged in a diamond shape. Loop Antenna Polarization This loop is fed on a horizontal side so it is horizontally polarized If it was fed on a vertical side it would be vertically polarized Cubical Quad Antenna A cubical quad antenna is two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long. Only one loop is a driven element the other(s) are parasitic. Coax feed The length of side of a square is 1/4 λ but it could be rectangular or other shapes as long as the total length is one wavelength. Since these are closed loops rather than open-ended we do not reduce by 5%. A quad is comparable to a three element Yagi with directional gain perpendicular to the plane of the loops Directivity of a quad is greater than a dipole in both horizontal and vertical planes A delta loop antenna is a type of cubical quad antenna, except with triangular elements rather than square. A delta antenna will have sides 1/3 wavelength long. The characteristic impedance is 100 ohms Total length of the perimeter of each square is one wavelength Tuning stub

43 43 Chapter 7 Propagation Line of sight, Ground wave, Ionospheric wave B Q Page 89 Exhaminer L11 (1.) MUF (2.) Line-of-Sight or Direct Wave is the type of propagation from one VHF transceiver to another. VHF and UHF signals can be reflected by hills or buildings, moving the receiver 20cm or so may improve reception Ionospheric Wave also called the Sky Wave is the propagation of radio waves reflected or refracted back to the Earth's surface by the ionosphere as shown in the diagram above. Multi-hop long distance communication occurs when the signal is reflected again by the earth to the ionosphere. HF radio long distance communication (between 0 and 30 MHz) is a result of ionospheric wave propagation and reception is possible beyond 4,000 km in multiple hops. (1) Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) This is the highest frequency that will be reflected by the ionosphere. The MUF also known as the Critical Frequency. (2.) Frequencies above MUF pass through the reflective layers and go on to space. Ground Wave propagation is possible out to 200 km at lower HF frequencies. It is affected by the surface of the earth and the distance is less at higher frequencies. Ionospheric Regions B Q Page 89 Exhaminer L11 Solar Radiation, mostly Ultraviolet, ionizes the outer atmosphere causing it to reflect HF radio waves. The ionized regions or layers are collectively called the Ionosphere. It is most ionized at midday and least ionized shortly before dawn. The F2 region gives the longest distance radio propagation because it is the highest. F2 Longest single hop distance is normally 4000 km F Region splits into F1 and F2 in daytime and merges at night. E region is below the F layer and above the D layer. E region longest single hop distance is normally 2000 km D Region is closest to earth and is least useful for long distance D Region absorption can cause the 160m, 80m and 40m bands to be good only for short distances in daylight. F2 layer 4,000 km hop F1 Layer E Layer 2,000 km hop D Layer Signals with increasing frequency

44 44 Skip Zone, B Skip Distance, Q Page 90 Hop Distance Exhaminer L11 Skip Effects are due to reflection and refraction from the ionosphere. Skip Distance is the distance from the transmitter to the nearest point the sky wave returns to earth which is the minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere. It is determined by the height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation of the antenna. If the height of the reflecting layer increases the skip distance will increase. The skip distance will be greatest when the angle between the ground and the radiated signal is smallest Skip Zone is the area too far away for ground wave propagation but too close for sky wave propagation. That is, the zone between the end of the ground wave and the nearest point the sky wave returns to earth. Maximum one hop distances: For F2 layer is 4,000 km. For E layer is 2,000 km. Multihop propagation is likely to be involved for distances over 4,000 km. Ionospheric Effects B Q Page 90 Exhaminer L11 D region absorption will cause low frequency HF signals not to be heard in daytime. This includes distant AM stations and 160 metre band signals. Fading is a change or variation of signal strength at an antenna. If a radio signal follows two or more paths of different lengths it can result in phase differences at the receiver producing selective fading of the signal. Wider bandwidth will make selective fading more pronounced. Ionospheric storms can cause a fade-out of sky wave signals. Small changes in the ionosphere can cause variations in signal strength for one-hop and two-hop signals. Polarization of the transmitting and receiving antennas is important for VHF and UHF but is relatively unimportant for HF since the ionosphere can change polarization of the signal from minute to minute. Polarization change often takes place over long distances caused by Refractions, Reflections and Passage through magnetic fields (Faraday rotation). It is not caused by Parabolic Interaction. Reflection of a Single Sideband transmission from the ionosphere causes little or no phase-shift distortion. Solar Activity B Q Page 91 Exhaminer L11 Solar Flux is the radio energy emitted by the sun. The Solar Flux Index is a measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency. Solar radiation affects all radio communication beyond Ground Wave or Line-of-Sight ranges. The ability of the ionosphere to reflect HF radio signals depends on the amount of solar radiation. Electromagnetic wave and Particle emissions from the sun both affect radio communications. Sunspots occur on the face of the sun and the more there are, the greater the ionization will be. The Sunspot Cycle or Solar Cycle is regular fluctuation of sunspot numbers over an 11 years cycle on average. This means that HF propagation will have an average 11 year cycle of maximum to minimum. High sunspot numbers enable frequencies up to 40MHz or higher to be usable for long distance communication. The increased ionization will cause a shift in the usable frequencies and some lower frequencies may be unusable.

45 Maximum Usable Frequency, Band Openings B Q Page 91 Exhaminer L11 Maximum Usable Frequency (MUF) also called the Critical Frequency is the highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination. Frequencies below the MUF are bent back to earth by the ionosphere Frequencies above the MUF pass through the ionosphere out to space. Variations in the MUF are caused by varying amounts of radiation from the sun, mostly ultraviolet. Optimum Working Frequency is slightly lower than the MUF and gives the best long range HF communications. Summer Daytime conditions make long range communications difficult on the 160 metre and 80 metre bands. The 20 metre band supports world-wide propagation in daylight hours at any point of the solar cycle. To determine if the MUF is high enough for 28 MHz communication you should listen for 10-metre beacon signals A Sudden Ionospheric Disturbance may make it necessary to try a higher HF frequency band. Increased Ionization will shift the usable frequencies upwards so some of the lower HF bands will become unusable and the higher HF frequencies, up to 40MHz or higher can be reflected by the ionosphere. 45 Tropospheric Ducting, Sporadic E, Aurora B Q Page 92 Exhaminer L11 The Troposphere is the lowest portion of the earth s atmosphere below even the D layer of the ionosphere. A Temperature Inversion can cause tropospheric ducting of VHF and UHF signals. These are normally line-of-sight but, tropospheric ducting can bend VHF signals close to the earth so they reach over 800km. Sporadic-E is caused by patches of dense ionization at the E region height. It can enable extended-distance propagation, mostly on the 6-metre band. 6-metre band skywave communications are the most affected by ionization of the E-layer. The Aurora is most familiar to us as the Northern Lights and is caused by ionization of the E-layer. Auroral propagation can be maximised by pointing a directional antenna to the North and using CW. Scatter B Q Page 92 Exhaminer L11 Scatter causes weak HF radio signals to be heard occasionally near or above the maximum frequency. They are characteristically distorted, hollow sounding or with a rapid flutter. Scatter waves come from energy scattered into the skip zone, only a small part of which is reflected through several radio paths which accounts for the weak and distorted signals. Scatter may allow weak signals to be heard in the skip zone, too far for ground wave and too near for skywave. Meteor Scatter caused by reflections from meteor showers is most effective from MHz, particularly the 6 metre band. Various scatter modes are Back, Forward and Side also Tropospheric, Ionospheric and Meteor. Inverted and Absorption are NOT scatter modes.

46 46 Chapter 8 Interference and Suppression Front-end overload, Cross-modulation B Q page 93 Exhaminer L13 Receiver Overload also known as Front-end Overload is interference caused by very strong signals from a nearby transmitter. It is diagnosed by sounding about the same no matter what transmitting band is selected and harmonics from it can cause TV interference whenever you transmit. A High-Pass Filter should be installed at the TV receiver as a first step to cure RF overload interference including that from harmonics. Inter-Modulation Interference is noticed at a broadcast receiver as an undesired signal from a nearby transmitter in the background of the desired signal. It may present as a mixture of signals on the desired frequency. Two or more strong out-of-band signals mixing in your receiver is called Intermodulation interference. TV Interference is experienced on Mhz every time you transmit on14 MHz. The interference is not a multiple of your frequency so it is not harmonic interference. A nearby commercial FM broadcaster is in 92.5 Mhz so you suspect intermodulation interference caused by the commercial signal mixing with your own. Try installing a high pass filter at the TV receiver first. A High-Pass Filter can reduce intermodulation when fitted at the antenna connector of a TV. Receiver Desensitization is occurring when a 20m SSB station at Field Day is compromised every time the 20m CW station is on the air. Two mobile stations travelling close to each other that have trouble communicating through a local repeater may have to use Simplex because the strong signal of one is de-sensitizing the receiver of the other mobile. Audio Rectification. Ferrites, RF Pickup B Q page 93 Exhaminer L13 Audio Rectification is the picking up and rectification of RF signals by a variety of audio equipment. The RF signals may be picked up by public address systems, speaker wires, home entertainment systems. In particular, long leads can act as receiving antennas. It will present itself as : Distorted speech on a public address system from a nearby SSB transmission. On-and-off humming and clicking on a public address system from nearby CW transmission. Transmission from a ham transmitter being heard across the entire dial of a broadcast receiver. SSB signals being heard, muffled, on the living room sound system regardless of volume setting Speaker and Audio Wires RF pickup can be minimized by: Wrapping each of the speaker leads through a ferrite core. Coils on ferrite cores. Ferrites are non-conductive ceramic compounds, many containing iron oxide. They are found on electronic cables as Ferrite Beads which prevent RF interference from entering the equipment the cables are attached to. Clip on ferrite beads Ferrite Bead Other ferrites are used in Baluns and chokes and different ferrite compositions are used in permanent magnets. Balun winding on a ferrite toroid (doughnut)

47 Key-Clicks, Spurious Emissions, Parasitic Oscillations B Q page 94 Key-Clicks in CW transmission is interference from the making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key. It results from too sharp rise and decay times of the keyed carrier causing poor shaping ot the waveform. Key-Click Filters should be used to prevent key-click interference. Check the filter and functioning of later stages. 47 Spurious Emissions are out-of band transmissions which can cause interference with other signals on nearby frequencies A Transmitter operated without the cover or other shielding in place may radiate spurious emissions. A Parasitic Oscillation is an unwanted signal developed in a transmitter, often in the RF power amplifier, at high or low frequencies and can be above or below the transmitter frequency. Harmonics, Transmitter adjustments B Q page 94 Exhaminer L13 Harmonic radiation is unwanted signals at frequencies that are multiples of the chosen frequency. It can cause interference to other stations and may result in out-of-band signals. It may be emitted by a poorly tuned transmitter, too much drive signal or overdriven stages Flat-topping is driving a power amplifier into non-linear operation causing harmonic radiation. Cure is to reduce microphone gain or speak further away from the microphone Transmissions heard on MHz whenever you transmit on 7.125MHz could be from harmonic radiation. TV interference on one or two channels when you transmit on 15 metres could be from harmonic radiations. TV Channel 2 (54-60MHz) interference may be caused by second harmonic radiation from a 10metre transmission Splatter Interference is caused by overmodulating a transmitter, It is out-of band or spurious emissions. Filters B Q page 95 Exhaminer L13 Filters are resonant circuits which are tuned to pass or reject certain frequencies or range of frequencies. Band-Pass Filter blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit. It will allow only certain frequencies through Low-Pass Filter will pass only frequencies below a certain frequency. They are fitted to many modern HF transmitters to reduce harmonic radiation, Or, you could put one in the transmission line as close to the transmitter as possible. A low-pass filter for a HF transmitter would attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz. Impedance of a low-pass filter should be about the same as the transmission line it is inserted in. High-Pass Filter will pass only frequencies above a certain frequency It is placed as close as possible to a television receiver s input to reduce HF energy getting into the TV. It could be fitted at the antenna terminals of a TV receiver. Band-Reject Filter will pass frequencies each side of a band. The Q of a filter is a measure of its selectivity and is affected by the amount of resistance in it. A higher Q is more selective and has a narrower bandwidth. A Notch Filter is a narrow band (high Q) band-reject filter which attenuates a whistle or interfering carrier signal at a specific frequency by cutting a notch out of the frequency spectrum at that point.

48 48 Spectrum Management and Telecommunications 09 December 2014 Basic Qualification Question Bank for Amateur Radio Operator Certificate Examinations Radio authority text page 4 B Authority to make regulations governing radiocommunications is derived from: A the Radiocommunication Regulations, B the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service, C the ITU Radio Regulations D the Radiocommunication Act B Authority to make "Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service" is derived from: A the ITU Radio Regulations B the Radiocommunication Act C the Radiocommunication Regulations D the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service B The Department that is responsible for the administration of the Radiocommunication Act is: A Communications Canada, B National Defence C Industry Canada D Transport Canada B The "amateur radio service" is defined in: A the Radiocommunication Regulations B the Radiocommunication Act C the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in he Amateur Radio Service D the FCC's Part 97 rules Licenses text page 4 B What must you do to notify your mailing address changes? A Write amateur organizations advising them of your new address, enclosing your certificate B Contact Industry Canada and provide details of your address change C Telephone your local club, and give them your new address D Contact an accredited examiner and provide details of your address change B An Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is valid for: A one year B life C five years D three years B Whenever a change of address is made: A Industry Canada must be notified within 14 days of operation at the new address B the station shall not be operated until a change of address card is forwarded to Industry Canada C within the same province, there is no need to notify Industry Canada D Industry Canada must be advised of any change in postal address B The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate: A must be put on file B must be kept in a safe place C must be kept on the person to whom it is issued D must be retained at the station B The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate shall, at the request of a duly appointed radio inspector, produce the certificate, or a copy thereof, to the inspector, within hours after the request: A 72 B 48 C 12 D 24 B The fee for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is: A $32 B $10 C $24 D free B The Amateur Radio Operator Certificate should be: A retained in a safety deposit box B retained on the radio amateur's person C retained in the radio amateur's vehicle D retained at the address provided to Industry Canada License offences & punishments text page 4 B Out of amateur band transmissions: A must be identified with your call sign B are permitted C are permitted for short tests only D are prohibited - penalties could be assessed to the control operator B If an amateur pretends there is an emergency and transmits the word "MAYDAY," what is this called? A An emergency test transmission B Nothing special: "MAYDAY" has no meaning in an emergency C False or deceptive signals D A traditional greeting in May B A person found guilty of transmitting a false or fraudulent distress signal, or interfering with, or obstructing any radio communication, without lawful cause, may be liable, on summary conviction, to a penalty of: A a fine of $ B a prison term of two years C a fine of $1 000 D a fine, not exceeding $5 000, or a prison term of one year, or both B What government document states the offences and penalties for non compliance of the rules governing radiocommunications? A The Radiocommunication Act B The Official Radio Rules of Canada C The Radiocommunications Regulations D The Radiocommunications Law Reform Act of 2002 B Which of the following is not correct? The Minister may suspend an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate: A With no notice, or opportunity to make representation thereto B Where the holder has contravened the Radiocommunication Act, its Regulations, or the terms and conditions of the certificate C Where the certificate was obtained through misrepresentation D Where the holder has failed to comply with a request to pay fees or interest due B Which of the following statements is not correct? A Where entry is refused, and is necessary to perform his duties under the Act, a radio inspector may obtain a warrant B In executing a warrant, a radio inspector shall not use force, unless accompanied by a peace officer, and force is authorized C The person in charge of a place entered by a radio inspector shall give the inspector information that the inspector requests D A radio inspector may enter a dwelling without the consent of the occupant and without a warrant

49 Operators Certificates text page 4 B What age must you be to hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification? A 18 years or older B 14 years or older C There are no age limits D 70 years or younger B Which examination must be passed before an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate is issued? A Advanced B Basic C Personality test D Morse code B Holders of which one of the following certificates may be issued an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate? A Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Maritime (ROC-M) B Canadian Restricted Operator's Certificate - Maritime Commercial (ROC-MC) C Canadian Restricted Operator Certificate - Aeronautical (ROC-A) D Canadian Radiocommunication Operator General Certificate Maritime (RGMC) B After an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic qualifications is issued, the holder may be examined for additional qualifications in the following order: A Morse code after passing the Basic with Honours B Advanced after passing Morse code C any order D Morse code after passing the Advanced B One Morse code qualification is available for the Amateur Radio Operator Certificate. It is: A 12 w.p.m. B 7 w.p.m. C 15 w.p.m. D 5 w.p.m. B The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with the Basic Qualification is authorized to operate the following stations: A any authorized station except stations authorized in the amateur, aeronautical or maritime services B a station authorized in the amateur service C a station authorized in the aeronautical service D a station authorized in the maritime service B What conditions must candidates to amateur radio certification meet? A Have a valid address in Canada B Be a Canadian citizen C Be a Canadian citizen or permanent resident D Be at least 14 years of age and a Canadian citizen or permanent resident 49 Operation, Repair & maintenance text page 5 B Radio apparatus may be installed, placed in operation, repaired or maintained by the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification on behalf of another person: A pending the granting of a radio authorization, if the apparatus covers the amateur and commercial frequency bands B pending the granting of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate if the apparatus covers the amateur frequency bands only C if the transmitter of a station, for which a radio authorization is to be applied for, is type approved and crystal controlled D if the other person is the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate to operate in the amateur radio service B The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate may design and build from scratch transmitting equipment for use in the amateur radio service provided that person has the: A Basic qualification B Advanced qualification C Basic and Morse code qualification D Morse code with Honours B Where a friend is not the holder of any type of radio operator certificate, you, as a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification, may, on behalf of your friend: A modify and repair the radio apparatus but not install it B not install, place in operation, modify, repair, maintain, or permit the operation of the radio apparatus C install an amateur station, but not operate or permit the operation of the apparatus D install and operate the radio apparatus, using your own call sign B A radio amateur with Basic and Morse code qualifications may install an amateur station for another person: A only if the other person is the holder of a valid Amateur Radio Operator Certificate B only if the final power input does not exceed 100 watts C only if the station is for use on one of the VHF bands D only if the DC power input to the final stage does not exceed 200 watts

50 50 Operation of Radio apparatus text page 5 B An amateur radio station with a maximum input power to the final stage of 2 watts: A must be operated by a person with an Amateur Certificate and call sign B must be licensed by Industry Canada C need not be licensed in isolated areas only D is exempt from regulatory control by Industry Canada B An amateur station may be used to communicate with: A any stations which are identified for special contests B armed forces stations during special contests and training exercises C any station transmitting in the amateur bands D stations operated under similar authorizations B Which of the following statements is not correct? A A courteous operator refrains from using offensive language B A radio amateur may not operate, or permit to be operated, a radio apparatus which he knows is not performing to the Radiocommunication Regulations C A radio amateur may use a linear amplifier to amplify the output of a licence-exempt transmitter outside any amateur radio allocations D A considerate operator does not transmit unnecessary signals B Which of the following statements is not correct? A A person may operate or permit the operation of radio apparatus only where the apparatus is maintained to the Radiocommunication Regulations tolerances B A person may operate an amateur radio station when the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service C An amateur radio operator transmitting unnecessary or offensive signals does not violate accepted practice D Except for a certified radio amateur operating within authorized amateur radio allocations, no person shall possess or operate any device for amplifying the output power of a licence-exempt radio apparatus B Which of these statements is not correct? A person may operate radio apparatus, authorized in the amateur radio service: A only where the person complies with the Standards for the Operation of Radio Stations in the Amateur Radio Service B only where the apparatus is maintained within the performance standards set by Industry Canada regulations and policies C except for the amplification of the output power of licence-exempt radio apparatus operating outside authorized amateur radio service allocations D on aeronautical, marine or land mobile frequencies B Some VHF and UHF FM radios purchased for use in the amateur service can also be programmed to communicate on frequencies used for the land mobile service. Under what conditions is this permissible? A The equipment has a RF power output of 2 watts or less B The equipment is used in remote areas north of 60 degrees latitude C The radio is certified under the proper Radio Standard Specification for use in Canada and licensed by Industry Canada on the specified frequencies D The radio operator has a Restricted Operator's Certificate Content Restrictions text page 5 B Which of the following cannot be discussed on an amateur club net? A Emergency planning B Business planning C Recreation planning D Code practice planning B When is a radio amateur allowed to broadcast information to the general public? A Only when broadcasts last less than 1 hour B Only when broadcasts last longer than 15 minutes C Never D Only when the operator is being paid B When may false or deceptive amateur signals or communications be transmitted? A When playing a harmless "practical joke" B When you need to hide the meaning of a message for secrecy C Never D When operating a beacon transmitter in a "fox hunt" exercise B Which of the following one-way communications may not be transmitted in the amateur service? A Broadcasts intended for the general public B Radio control commands to model craft C Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station D Morse code practice B You wish to develop and use a new digital encoding technique to transmit data over amateur radio spectrum. Under what conditions is this permissible? A When it sends the amateur station's call sign B When the encoding technique is published in the public domain C When it is used for music streaming content D When it is used for commercial traffic B When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit an encoded message? A When transmitting above 450 MHz B Only when the encoding or cipher is not secret C During a declared communications emergency D During contests B What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service? A Only "10 codes" are permitted B They may be used if the signals or codes are not secret C There are no restrictions D They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to government monitoring stations B What should you do to keep you station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station? A Turn up the volume of your transmitter B Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength C Adjust your transceiver noise blanker D Turn down the volume of background audio B The transmission of a secret code by the operator of an amateur station: A is permitted for third-party traffic B is not permitted C is permitted for contests D must be approved by Industry Canada B A radio amateur may be engaged in communication which include the transmission of: A commercially recorded material B Q signals C programming that originates from a broadcasting undertaking D radiocommunication in support of industrial, business, or professional activities B In the amateur radio service, business communications: A are not permitted under any circumstance B are permitted on some bands C are only permitted if they are for the safety of life or immediate protection of property D are not prohibited by regulation

51 Installation & Operating Restrictions text page 5 B Where may the holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate operate an amateur radio station in Canada? A Anywhere in Canada during times of emergency B Only at the address shown on Industry Canada records C Anywhere in your call sign prefix area D Anywhere in Canada B Which type of station may transmit one-way communications? A HF station B VHF station C Beacon station D Repeater station B Amateur radio operators may install or operate radio apparatus: A at any location in Canada B only at the address which is on record at Industry Canada C at the address which is on record at Industry Canada and at one other location D at the address which is on record at Industry Canada and in two mobiles B In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for receiving and automatically retransmitting radiotelephone communications within the same frequency band, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of: A Basic and Advanced qualifications B Basic and Morse code qualifications C Basic qualification D Basic with Honours B In order to install any radio apparatus, to be used specifically for an amateur radio club station, the radio amateur must hold an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate, with a minimum of the following qualifications: A Basic with Honours B Basic and Advanced C Basic, Advanced and Morse code D Basic B In order to install or operate a transmitter or RF amplifier that is neither professionally designed nor commercially manufactured for use in the amateur service, a radio amateur must hold an Amateur Operator's Certificate, with a minimum of which qualifications? A Basic and Morse code B Basic, Advanced and Morse code C Basic and Advanced D Basic with Honours Use of station by others text page 5 B Who is responsible for the proper operation of an amateur station? A The person who owns the station equipment B Only the control operator C Both the control operator and the station owner D Only the station owner who has an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate B If you transmit from another amateur's station, who is responsible for its proper operation? A Both of you B You C The station owner, unless the station records show that you were the control operator at the time D The station owner B What is your responsibility as a station owner? A You must notify Industry Canada if another amateur acts as the control operator B You are responsible for the proper operation of the station in accordance with the regulations C You must allow another amateur to operate your station upon request D You must be present whenever the station is operated B Who may be the control operator of an amateur station? A Any qualified amateur chosen by the station owner B Any person over 21 years of age with a Basic Qualification C Any person over 21 years of age with Basic and Morse code qualifications D Any person over 21 years of age B When must an amateur station have a control operator? A Only when training another amateur B Whenever the station is transmitting C A control operator is not needed D Whenever the station receiver is operated B When an amateur station is transmitting, where must its control operator be? A Anywhere within 50 km of the station location B At the station's control point C Anywhere in the same building as the transmitter D At the station's entrance, to control entry to the room B Why can't family members without qualifications transmit using your amateur station if they are alone with your equipment? A They must first know how to use the right abbreviations and Q signals B They must first know the right frequencies and emission modes for transmitting C They must hold suitable amateur radio qualifications before they are allowed to be control operators D They must not use your equipment without your permission B The owner of an amateur station may: A permit anyone to take part in communications only if prior written permission is received from Industry Canada B permit anyone to use the station without restrictions C permit anyone to use the station and take part in communications D permit any person to operate the station under the supervision and in the presence of the holder of the amateur operator certificate B Which of the following statements is correct? A A person, holding only Basic Qualification, may operate another station on 14.2 MHz B Radio amateurs may permit any person to operate the station without supervision C Any person may operate a station in the amateur radio service D Any person may operate an amateur station under supervision, and in the presence of, a person holding appropriate qualifications 51

52 52 Interference & protection from interference text page 6 B What is a transmission called that disturbs other communications? A Transponder signals B Unidentified transmissions C Harmful interference D Interrupted CW B When may you deliberately interfere with another station's communications? A Only if the station begins transmitting on a frequency you are using B You may expect, and cause, deliberate interference because it can't be helped during crowded band conditions C Never D Only if the station is operating illegally B If the amateur service is a secondary user of a frequency band, and another service is a primary user, what does this mean? A Amateurs are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do not cause interference to primary users B Nothing special: all users of a band have equal rights to operate C Amateurs are only allowed to use the band during emergencies D Amateurs must increase transmitter power to overcome any interference caused by primary users B What rule applies if two amateurs want to use the same frequency? A Both station operators have an equal right to operate on the frequency B The station operator with a lesser qualification must yield the frequency to an operator of higher qualification C The station operator with a lower power output must yield the frequency to the station with a higher power output D Station operators in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to stations in ITU Region 2 B What name is given to interference that seriously degrades, obstructs or repeatedly interrupts radiocommunications? A Disruptive interference B Harmful interference C Intentional interference D Adjacent interference B Where interference to the reception of radiocommunications is caused by the operation of an amateur station: A the Minister may require the necessary steps for the prevention of the interference be taken by the radio amateur B the amateur operator is not obligated to take any action C the amateur operator may continue to operate without restrictions D the amateur station operator may continue to operate and take the necessary steps when the amateur operator can afford it B Radio amateur operation must not cause interference to other radio services operating in which of the following bands? A 14.0 to 14.2 MHz B to MHz C 7.0 to 7.1 MHz D to MHz B Radio amateurs ARE NOT protected from interference caused by another service operating in which frequency bands? A 902 to 928 MHz B 144 to 148 MHz C 222 to 225 MHz D 50 to 54 MHz B Which of the following is not correct? The operator of an amateur station: A may make trials or tests, except if there is a possibility of interference to other stations B may make trials or tests, even though there is a possibility of interfering with other stations C shall not cause harmful interference to a station in another service which has primary use of that band D may conduct technical experiments using the station apparatus B Which of these amateur band may be heavily occupied by licence exempt devices? A 3.5 to 4.0 MHz B 430 to 450 MHz C to khz D 902 to 928 MHz B The amateur radio service is authorized to share a portion of what Industrial Scientific Medical (ISM) band that is heavily used by licence exempt devices? A 1240 to 1300 MHz B 2300 to 2450 MHz C 430 to 450 MHz D 144 to 148 MHz Emergency communication regulations text page 6 B Amateur radio stations may communicate: A with any station involved in a real or simulated emergency B only with other amateur stations C with anyone who uses international Morse code D with non amateur stations B During relief operations in the days following a disaster, when may an amateur use his equipment to communicate on frequencies outside amateur bands? A When relaying messages on behalf of government agencies B When messages are destined to agencies without amateur radio support C When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted D Never B If you hear an unanswered distress signal on a amateur band where you do not have privileges to communicate: A you should offer assistance B you may offer assistance using international Morse code only C you may offer assistance after contacting Industry Canada for permission to do so D you may not offer assistance B In the amateur radio service, it is permissible to broadcast: A commercially recorded material B programming that originates from a broadcast undertaking C radio communications for the immediate safety of life of individuals or the immediate protection of property D music B An amateur radio station in distress may: A Use any means of radiocommunication B only use radio communication bands for which the operator is qualified to use C use any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels D only Morse code communications on internationally recognized emergency channels B During a disaster, when may an amateur make transmissions necessary for essential communications & assist relief operations? A When normal communications are overloaded, damaged or disrupted B Never: only official stations may transmit in a disaster C When normal communications systems are working but are not convenient D Only when the local emergency net is activated B During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a station in distress? A 1500 watts PEP B 200 watts PEP C There are no limitations for a station in distress D 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the night B During a disaster: A use only frequencies in the 40 metre band B use any United Nations approved frequency C most communications are handled by nets using predetermined frequencies in amateur bands. Operators not directly involved with disaster communications are requested to avoid making unnecessary transmissions on or near frequencies being used for disaster communications D use only frequencies in the 80 metre band B Messages from recognized public service agencies may be handled by amateur radio stations: A using Morse code only B when Industry Canada has issued a special authorization C only on the 7 and 14 MHz bands D during peace time and civil emergencies and exercises B It is permissible to interfere with the working of another station if: A the other station is not operating according to the Radiocommunication Regulations B you both wish to contact the same station C the other station is interfering with your transmission D your station is directly involved with a distress situation

53 Non-remuneration and privacy of communications text page 6 B What kind of payment is allowed for third-party messages sent by an amateur station? A Donation of amateur equipment B Donation of equipment repairs C Any amount agreed upon in advance D No payment of any kind is allowed B Radiocommunications transmitted by stations other than a broadcasting station may be divulged or used: A if it is transmitted by an amateur station B if transmitted by any station using the international Morse code C if transmitted in English or French D during peacetime civil emergencies B The operator of an amateur station: A shall charge no less than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives B shall charge no more than $10 for each message that the person transmits or receives C may accept a gift or gratuity in lieu of remuneration for any message that the person transmits or receives D shall not demand or accept remuneration in any form, for a radiocommunication that the person transmits or receives B Which of the following is not an exception from the penalties under the Act, for divulging, intercepting or using information obtained through radiocommunication, other than broadcasting? A Where it is for the purpose of preserving or protecting property, or for the prevention of harm to a person B Where it is for the purpose of giving evidence in a criminal or civil proceeding in which persons are required to give evidence C Where it is on behalf of Canada, for the purpose of international or national defence or security D Where it is to provide information for a journalist Station identification, call signs, and prefixes text page 7 B Which of the following call signs is a valid Canadian amateur radio call sign? A BY7HY B KA9OLS C VA3XYZ D SM2CAN B How often must an amateur station be identified? A At least once during each transmission B At the beginning and end of each transmission C At least every thirty minutes, and at the beginning and at the end of a contact D At the beginning of a contact and at least every thirty minutes after that B What do you transmit to identify your amateur station? A Your call sign B Your "handle" C Your first name and your location D Your full name B What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations begin communications? A No identification is required B Both stations must transmit both call signs C One of the stations must give both stations' call signs D Each station must transmit its own call sign B What identification, if any, is required when two amateur stations end communications? A Both stations must transmit both call signs B Each station must transmit its own call sign C No identification is required D One of the stations must transmit both stations' call signs B What is the longest period of time an amateur station can transmit, without identifying by call sign? A 20 minutes B 15 minutes C 10 minutes D 30 minutes B When may an amateur transmit unidentified communications? A Only for two-way or third-party communications B Never, except to control a model craft C Only for brief tests not meant as messages D Only if it does not interfere with others B What language may you use when identifying your station? A Any language of a country which is a member of the International Telecommunication Union B English or French C Any language being used for a contact D Any language being used for a contact, providing Canada has a third-party communications agreement with that country B The call sign of an amateur station must be transmitted: A at intervals not greater than three minutes when using voice communications B at intervals not greater than ten minutes when using Morse code C when requested to do so by the station being called D at the beginning and at the end of each exchange of communications and at intervals not greater than 30 minutes B The call sign of an amateur station must be sent: A at the beginning and end of each exchange of communications, and at least every 30 minutes, while in communications B every minute C every 15 minute D once after initial contact B The call sign of a Canadian amateur radio station would normally start with the letters: A. VA, VE, VO or VY B. GA, GE, MO or VQ C. A, K, N or W D. EA, EI, RO or UY 53

54 54 Foreign Operation in Canada, Banned Countries, Third-Party Messages. text page 7 B If a non-amateur friend is using your station to talk to someone in Canada, and a foreign station breaks in to talk to your friend, what should you do? A Since you can talk to foreign amateurs, your friend may keep talking as long as you are the control operator B Report the incident to the foreign amateur's government C Stop all discussions and quickly sign off D Have your friend wait until you determine from the foreign station if their administration permits third-party traffic B If you let an unqualified third party use your amateur station, what must you do at your station's control point? A You must key the transmitter and make the station identification B You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made on frequencies below 30 MHz C You must monitor and supervise the communication only if contacts are made in countries which have no third party communications D You must continuously monitor and supervise the third party's participation B Radio amateurs may use their stations to transmit international communications on behalf of a third party only if: A prior remuneration has been received B such communications have been authorized by the other country concerned C the amateur station has received written authorization from Industry Canada to pass third party traffic D the communication is transmitted by secret code B A Canadian amateur station operator is forbidden to communicate with amateur stations of another country: A when that country has notified the International Telecommunication Union that it objects to such communications B without written permission from Industry Canada C until he has properly identified his station D unless he is passing third-party traffic A) B International communications on behalf of third parties may be transmitted by an amateur station only if: A the countries concerned have authorized such communications B English or French is used to identify the station at the end of each transmission C the countries for which the traffic is intended have registered their consent to such communications with the ITU D radiotelegraphy is used B Amateur third party communications is: A a simultaneous communication between three operators B none of these answers C t he transmission of non-commercial or personal messages to or on behalf of a third party D the transmission of commercial or secret messages B International third party amateur radio communication in case of emergencies or disaster relief is expressly permitted unless: A internet service is working well in the foreign country involved B specifically prohibited by the foreign administration C satellite communication can be originated in the disaster area D the foreign administration is in a declared state of war B One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message is originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur: A all messages received from Canadian stations B messages originated from Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS) C messages that are handled within a local network D messages addressed to points within Canada B One of the following is not considered to be communications on behalf of a third party, even though the message may be originated by, or addressed to, a non-amateur: A all messages originated by Canadian amateur stations B messages to points within Canada from the United States C messages that are handled within local networks during a simulated emergency exercise D messages that originate from the United States Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) B Which of the following is not correct? While operating in Canada a radio amateur licensed by the Government of the United States must: A add to his call sign the Canadian call sign prefix for the geographic location of the station B qualify his identification when operating phone by adding to the call sign the word "mobile" or "portable" or when operating Morse code by adding a slash "/" C identify with the call sign assigned by the FCC D obtain a Canadian amateur certificate before operating in Canada B Which of the following statements is not correct? A Canadian radio amateur may, on amateur frequencies: A pass messages originating from or destined to the United States Military Auxiliary Radio System (MARS) B pass messages originating from or destined to the Canadian Forces Affiliate Radio Service (CFARS) C communicate with a similar station of a country which has not notified ITU that it objects to such communications D pass third-party traffic with all duly licensed amateur stations in any country which is a member of the ITU

55 55 Frequency bands and qualification requirements text page 7 B If you let another amateur with additional qualifications than yours control your station, what operating privileges are allowed? A All the emission privileges of additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications B All the frequency privileges of additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications C Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications D Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications B If you are the control operator at the station of another amateur who has additional qualifications to yours, what operating privileges are you allowed? A All emission privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the frequency privileges of your qualifications B All frequency privileges of the additional qualifications, but only the emission privileges of your qualifications C Only the privileges allowed by your qualifications D Any privileges allowed by the additional qualifications B In addition to passing the Basic examination, what must you do before you are allowed to use amateur frequencies below 30 MHz? A You must pass a Morse code or Advanced test or attain a mark of 80% on the Basic exam B You must notify Industry Canada that you intend to operate on the HF bands C You must pass a Morse code test D You must attend a class to learn about HF communications B The holder of an amateur radio certificate may operate radio controlled models: A if the frequency used is below 30 MHz B if only pulse modulation is used C on all frequencies above 30 MHz D if the control transmitter does not exceed 15 khz of occupied bandwidth B In Canada, the 75/80 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: A 4.0 to 4.5 MHz B 4.5 to 5.0 MHz C 3.5 to 4.0 MHz D 3.0 to 3.5 MHz B In Canada, the 160 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: A 2.0 to 2.25 MHz B 2.25 to 2.5 MHz C 1.8 to 2.0 MHz D 1.5 to 2.0 MHz B In Canada, the 40 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: A 6.5 to 6.8 MHz B 6.0 to 6.3 MHz C 7.7 to 8.0 MHz D 7.0 to 7.3 MHz B In Canada, the 20 meter amateur band corresponds in frequency to: A to MHz B to MHz C to MHz D to MHz B In Canada, the 15 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: A to MHz B to MHz C to MHz D to MHz B In Canada, the 10 metre amateur band corresponds in frequency to: A to MHz B to MHz C to MHz D to MHz B In Canada, radio amateurs may use which of the following for radio control of models: A 50 to 54, 144 to 148, and 222 to 225 MHz only B all amateur frequency bands above 30 MHz C 50 to 54 MHz only D all amateur frequency bands Maximum Bandwidth by Frequency Bands text page 8 B What is the maximum authorized bandwidth within the frequency range of 50 to 148 MHz? A The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission B 30 khz C 20 khz D The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone emission B The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 28 to 29.7 MHz is: A 20 khz B 6 khz C 30 khz D 15 khz B Except for one band, the maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed between 7 and 28 MHz is: A 30 khz B 6 khz C 15 khz D 20 khz B The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 144 to 148 MHz is: A 15 khz B 30 khz C 6 khz D 20 khz B The maximum bandwidth of an amateur station's transmission allowed in the band 50 to 54 MHz is: A 30 khz B 20 khz C 6 khz D 15 khz B Which of the following bands of amateur frequencies has a maximum allowed bandwidth of less than 6 khz. That band is: A 10.1 to MHz B to MHz C to MHz D 1.8 to 2.0 MHz B Single sideband is not permitted in the band: A to MHz B to MHz C 7.0 to 7.3 MHz D 10.1 to MHz B What precaution must an amateur radio operator take when transmitting near band edges? A Make sure that the emission mode is compatible with agreed band plans B Watch the standing wave ratio so as not to damage the transmitter C Ensure that the bandwidth required on either side of the carrier frequency does not fall out of band. D Restrict operation to telegraphy B Which answer is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, these modes may be transmitted on these frequencies: A AMTOR on MHz B 300 bps packet on MHz C fast-scan television (ATV) on 440 MHz D Fast-scan television (ATV) on 145 MHz B Which of the following answers is not correct, based on the bandwidth required. A frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz B single-sideband (SSB) on 3.76 MHz C fast-scan television (ATV) on MHz D slow-scan television (SSTV) on MHz B Which of the following answers is not correct? Based on the bandwidth required, the following modes may be transmitted on these frequencies: A single-sideband (SSB) on MHz B frequency modulation (FM) on 29.6 MHz C Morse radiotelegraphy (CW) on MHz D 300 bps packet on MHz

56 56 Restrictions on Capacity & Power Output by Qualifications. text page 8 B What amount of transmitter power should radio amateurs use at all times? A The minimum legal power necessary to communicate B 25 watts PEP output C 250 watts PEP output D 2000 watts PEP B What is the most FM transmitter power a holder of only Basic Qualification may use on 147 MHz? A 1000 watts DC input B 200 watts PEP output C 25 watts PEP output D 250 W DC input B Where in your station can you verify that legal power limits are respected? A On the antenna itself, after the transmission line B At the power supply terminals inside the transmitter or amplifier C At the antenna connector of the transmitter or amplifier D At the power amplifier RF input terminals in the transmitter or amplifier B What is the maximum transmitting output power an amateur station may use on 3750 khz, if the operator has Basic and Morse code qualifications? A 560 watts PEP output for SSB operation B 1000 watts PEP output for SSB operation C 1500 watts PEP output for SSB operation D 2000 watts PEP output for SSB operation B What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use for SSB operation on 7055 khz, if the operator has Basic with Honours qualifications? A 200 watts PEP output B 560 watts PEP output C 1000 watts PEP output D 2000 watts PEP output B The DC power input to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage of a transmitter, used by a holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Advanced Qualification, shall not exceed: A 250 watts B 500 watts C 750 watts D 1000 watts B The maximum DC input to the final stage of an amateur transmitter, when the operator is the holder of both the Basic and Advanced qualifications, is: A 250 watts B 1500 watts C 500 watts D 1000 watts B The operator of an amateur station, who is the holder of a Basic Qualification, shall ensure that the station power, expressed as RF output power measured across an impedance matched load, does not exceed: A 560 watts peak-envelope power, for transmitters producing any type of single sideband emission B 2500 watts peak power C 1000 watts carrier power for transmitters producing other emissions D 150 watts peak power B The holder of an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic Qualification is limited to a maximum of watts direct current input power to the anode or collector circuit of the transmitter stage supplying RF energy to the antenna: A 1000 B 750 C 100 D 250 B Which of these is the most powerful equipment the holder of a Basic with Honours Cert. can legally operate at full power? A 100 watts carrier power HF transmitter B 200 watts carrier power HF transceiver C 600 watts PEP HF linear amplifier D 160 watts carrier power VHF amplifier Unmodulated Carriers, and Re-Transmission. text page 9 B What kind of amateur station automatically retransmits the signals of other stations? A Remote-control station B Beacon station C Repeater station D Space station control and telemetry link B An unmodulated carrier may be transmitted only: A if the output to the final RF amplifier is kept under 5W C in frequency bands below 30 MHz B when transmitting SSB D for brief tests on frequencies below 30 MHz B Radiotelephone signals in a frequency band below MHz cannot be automatically retransmitted, unless these signals are received from a station operated by a person qualified to transmit on frequencies below the above frequency: A 29.5 MHz B 29.7 MHz C 50 MHz D 144 MHz B Which of the following statements is not correct? Radiotelephone signals may be retransmitted: A in the 21 MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification B in the MHz band, when received in a VHF band, from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification C in the MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with onlybasic Qualification D in the MHz frequency band, when received from a station operated by a person with only Basic Qualification Amplitude Modulation, Frequency Stability, and Measurements. text page 9 B When operating on frequencies below 148 MHz: A an overmodulation indicator must be used B the frequency stability must be comparable to crystal control C the bandwidth for any emission must not exceed 3 khz D the frequency stability of the transmitter must be at least two parts per million over a period of one hour B A reliable means to prevent or indicate overmodulation must be employed at an amateur station if: A DC input power to the anode or collector circuit of the final RF stage is in excess of 250 watts B radiotelegraphy is used C persons other than the holder of the authorization use the station D radiotelephony is used B An amateur station using radiotelephony must install a device for indicating or preventing: A overmodulation B resonance C antenna power D plate voltage B The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is: A 100 percent B 75 percent C 50 percent D 90 percent B All amateur stations, regardless of the mode of transmission used, must be equipped with: A a DC power meter B an overmodulation indicating device C a dummy antenna D a reliable means of determining the operating radio frequency B The maximum percentage of modulation permitted in the use of radiotelephony by an amateur station is: A 100 percent B 90 percent C 75 percent D 50 percent

57 International Telecommunication Union (ITU). text page 9 B What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country? A Messages of any type, if the foreign country allows third-party communications with Canada B Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature C Messages of any type D Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative unimportance B The operator of an amateur station shall ensure that: A all communications are conducted in secret code B charges are properly applied to all third-party communications C communications are limited to messages of a technical or personal nature D communications are exchanged only with commercial stations B Which of the following is not a provision of the ITU Radio Regulations which apply to Canadian radio amateurs? A It is forbidden to transmit international messages on behalf of third parties, unless those countries make special arrangements B Radiocommunications between countries shall be forbidden, if the administration of one of the countries objects C Administrations shall take measures as they judge necessary to verify the operational and technical qualifications of amateurs D Transmissions between countries shall not include any messages of a technical nature, or remarks of a personal character B The ITU Radio Regulations limit radio amateurs, who have not demonstrated proficiency in Morse code, to frequencies above: A 3.5MHz B 28 MHz C none of the other answers D 1.8 MHz B In addition to the Radiocommunication Act and Regulations, Canadian radio amateurs must comply with the regulations of the: A International Amateur Radio Union B International Telecommunication Union C American Radio Relay League D Radio Amateurs of Canada Inc. Operation Outside Canada. text page 9 B In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Canada? A Region 1 B Region 2 C Region 4 D Region 3 B A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station in the state of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits? A ITU Region 1 B Those applicable to US radio amateurs C ITU Region 2 D ITU Region 3 B A Canadian radio amateur, operating his station 7 kilometres (4 miles) offshore from the coast of Florida, is subject to which frequency band limits? A ITU Region 1 B ITU Region 2 C Those applicable to US radio amateurs D Those applicable to Canadian radio amateurs B Australia, Japan, and Southeast Asia are in which ITU Region? A Region 1 B Region 2 C Region 4 D Region 3 B Canada is located in ITU Region: A Region 2 B Region 1 C Region 3 D Region 4 Examinations. text page 10 B Which of these statements is not correct? A The fee for taking an exam for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Industry Canada office is $5 per qualification B An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination C An accredited volunteer examiner must hold a Amateur Radio Operator Certificate with Basic, Advanced, and Morse code D The fee for taking an examination for an Amateur Radio Operator Certificate at an Industry Canada office is $20 per qualification B Which of the following statements is not correct? A A disabled candidate, for a Morse code sending test, may be allowed to recite the examination text in Morse code sounds B Examinations for disabled candidates may be given orally, or tailored to the candidate's ability to complete the exam C An accredited examiner may recover the cost of administering an examination. D A disabled candidate must pass a normal amateur radio certificate examination before being granted any qualification B The fee for taking examinations for amateur radio operator certificates by an accredited volunteer examiner is: A always $20 per visit regardless of the number of examinations B to be negotiated between examiner and candidate C always $20 per qualification D always free of charge B The fee for taking amateur radio certificate examinations at an Industry Canada office is: A $5 per qualification examination B $20 per qualification C $20 per visit, regardless of the number of qualification examinations D no charge for qualification examinations B Which of the following statements is false? A A candidate who fails a written examination for lack of reading skills may be given an oral examination B A candidate who fails a written examination due to not usually speaking English or French may be given an oral exam C An examiner may request medical evidence from a practicing medical physician before accommodating testing D A candidate with insufficient knowledge of English or French may be accompanied by an interpreter 57

58 58 Antenna Structure Approval. text page 10 B Which of these statements about the installation or modification of an antenna structure is not correct? A Prior to an installation, for which community concerns could be raised, radio amateurs may have to consult the land-use authority B A radio amateur may erect any size antenna structure without consulting neighbours or the local land-use authority C A radio amateur must follow Industry Canada's antenna siting procedures. D Industry Canada expects radio amateurs to address community concerns in a responsible manner B Who has authority over antenna installations including antenna masts and towers? A The local municipal government B The majority of neighbours residing within a distance of three times the proposed antenna height C The Minister of Industry D The person planning to use the tower or their spouse B If you are planning to install or modify an antenna system under what conditions may you not be required to contact land use authorities to determine public consultation requirements? A When transmitting will only be done at low power B When an exclusion criterion defined by Industry Canada applies C In a rural area D When the structure is part of an amateur radio antenna B If The land use authority has not established a process for public consultation for antenna systems, the radio amateur planning to install or modify an antenna system: A must wait for the land use authority to develop a public consultation process B must fulfill the public consultation requirements set out in Industry Canada's Default Public Consultation Process unless the land use authority excludes their type of proposal from consultation or it is excluded by Industry Canada's process C can proceed with their project without public consultation D must implement a public consultation process of their own design B Which is not an element of the Industry Canada Public Consultation Process for antenna systems? A Providing an opportunity for the public to respond regarding measures to address reasonable and relevant concerns B Participating in public meetings on the project C Providing written notice D Addressing relevant questions comments and concerns B The Default Public Consultation Process for antenna systems requires proponents to address: A reasonable and relevant concerns provided in writing within the 30 day public comment period B all questions, comments and concerns raised C comments reported in media reporting on the proposal D opposition to the project B Where a municipality has developed a public consultation process which of the following options best describes all circumstances when public consultation may not be required? A Exclusions listed in both CPC and the Local land use authority process B Exclusions listed in either CPC or the Local land use authority process C Exclusions listed in the Industry Canada Client Procedures Circular on Radiocommunications and Broadcasting Antenna Systems CPC D Exclusions defined in the Local land use authority process B Where the proponent and a stakeholder other than the general public reach an impasse over a proposed antenna system the final decision will: A be made by the municipality in which the antenna is to be built B be made by a majority vote of those residing within a radius of three times the antenna structure height C be made by Industry Canada D be postponed until those in dispute reach an agreement B In general, what is the tallest amateur radio antenna system excluded from the requirement to consult with the land use authority and the public where there is a land use authority defined public consultation process? A 15m B 21m C the taller of the height exclusion in the land use authority public consultation process and Industry Canada's antenna siting procedures D 10m B Where a land use authority or municipality has established a public consultation process for antenna systems, who determines how public consultation should take place? A The municipality or local land use authority B Industry Canada C The person planning to erect an antenna structure D The provincial government

59 Radio Frequency Electromagnetic Field Limits. text page B What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy near the human body? A Canadian Standards Association B Environment Canada C Transport Canada D Health Canada B What is the purpose of the Safety Code 6? A It gives RF exposure limits for the human body C It sets transmitter power limits for interference protection B It lists all RF frequency allocations for interference protection D It sets antenna height limits for aircraft protection B According to Safety Code 6, what frequencies cause us the greatest risk from RF energy? A 3 to 30 MHz B 30 to 300 MHz C 300 to 3000 MHz D Above 1500 MHz B Why is the limit of exposure to RF the lowest in the frequency range of 30 MHz to 300 MHz, according to Safety Code 6? A Most transmissions in this range are for a longer time B The human body absorbs RF energy the most in this range C There are more transmitters operating in this range D There are fewer transmitters operating in this range B According to Safety Code 6, what is the maximum safe power output to the antenna of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio? A 25 watts B 125 milliwatts C Not specified D 10 watts B Which of the following statements is not correct? A Maximum exposure levels of RF fields to the general population, in the frequency range 10 to 300 MHz, is 28 V/m RMS (E-field) B Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is increased from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz C Permissible exposure levels of RF fields increases as frequency is decreased from 10 MHz to 1 MHz D Permissible exposure levels of RF fields decreases as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz B The permissible exposure levels of RF fields: A decreases, as frequency is decreased below 10 MHz C decreases, as frequency is increased above 300 MHz B increases, as frequency is increased from 10 MHz to 300 MHz D increases, as frequency is increased from 300 MHz to 1.5 GHz B Which statement is not correct? A hand held transmitters are excluded from Safety Code 6 requirements B Antenna gain, distance, transmitter power and frequency are all factors which influence the electric field strength and a person's exposure to radio energy. C Safety Code 6 uses different units for the magnetic field strength and the electric field strength when stating limits D Safety Code 6 specifies lower exposure limits for the general public in uncontrolled areas than it does for people in controlled areas. B Which statement is correct? A Portable transmitters, operating below 1 GHz, with an output power equal to, or less than 7 watts, are exempt from Safety Code 6 B Safety Code 6 sets limits for RF exposure from all radio transmitters regardless of power output C Safety Code 6 regulates the operation of receivers only D The operation of portable transmitting equipment is of no concern in Safety Code 6 B Which of these statements about Safety Code 6 is false? A Safety Code 6 sets limits for induced currents, electrical field strength and magnetic field strength from electromagnetic radiation B Safety Code 6 sets limits for allowable rates at which RF energy is absorbed in the body (Specific Absorption Rate) C Safety Code 6 sets limits in terms of power levels fed into antennas D Safety Code 6 sets limits for contact currents that could be drawn from ungrounded or poorly grounded objects Resolution of Radio Frequency Interference Complaints. text page 10 B In the event of the malfunctioning of a neighbour's broadcast FM receiver and stereo system, it will be deemed that the affected equipment's lack of immunity is the cause if the field strength: A at the transmitting location is below the radio amateur's maximum allowable transmitter power B at the transmitting location is above 100 watts C near the affected equipment is above Industry Canada's specified immunity criteria D on the premises of the affected equipment is below Industry Canada's specified immunity criteria B In the event of interference to a neighbour's television receiver, according to EMCAB-2 it will be deemed that a radio amateur's transmission is the cause of the problem if the field strength: A at the transmitting location is above the radio amateur's maximum allowable transmitter power B on the neighbour's premises is above Industry Canada's specified immunity criteria C near the TV is below Industry Canada's specified immunity criteria D at the transmitting location is below the radio amateur's maximum allowable transmitter power B Which of the following is defined in EMCAB-2 as "any device, machinery or equipment, other than radio apparatus, the use or functioning of which is, or can be, adversely affected by radiocommunication emissions"? A Broadcast receivers B Radio-sensitive equipment C Cable television converters D Audio and video recorders B According to EMCAB-2 which of the following types of equipment is not included in the list of field strength criteria for resolution of immunity complaints? A Broadcast transmitters B Broadcast receivers C Associated equipment D Radio-sensitive equipment

60 60 VHF / UHF Repeaters text page 11 B What is a good way to make contact on a repeater? A Say the other operator's name, then your call sign three times C Say the call sign of the station you want to contact three times D Say the call sign of the station you want to contact, then your call sign B Say, "Breaker, breaker," B What is the main purpose of a repeater? A To retransmit weather information during severe storm warnings B To make local information available 24 hours a day C To increase the range of portable and mobile stations D To link amateur stations with the telephone system B What is frequency coordination on VHF and UHF bands? A The selection of simplex frequencies by individual operators B A part of the planning prior to a contest C A process which seeks to carefully assign frequencies so as to minimize interference with neighbouring repeaters D A band plan detailing modes and frequency segments within a band B What is the purpose of a repeater time-out timer? A It tells how long someone has been using a repeater B It interrupts lengthy transmissions without pauses C It lets a repeater have a rest period after heavy use D It logs repeater transmit time to predict when a repeater will fail B What is a CTCSS tone? A A sub-audible tone that activates a receiver audio output when present B A tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission C A special signal used for telemetry between amateur space stations and Earth stations D A special signal used for radio control of model craft B How do you call another station on a repeater if you know the station's call sign? A Say "CQ" three times, then say the station's call sign B Wait for the station to call "CQ", then answer it C Say the station's call sign, then identify your own station D Say "break, break 79," then say the station's call sign B Why should you pause briefly between transmissions when using a repeater? A To check the SWR of the repeater B To reach for pencil and paper for third-party communications C To dial up the repeater's autopatch D To listen for anyone else wanting to use the repeater B Why should you keep transmissions short when using a repeater? A to keep long distance charges down. B, To give any listening non-hams a chance to respond. C. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake D. A long transmission may keep someone with an emergency from using the repeater B What is the proper way to join into a conversation on a repeater? A. Turn on an amplifier and override whoever is talking. B. Say your call sign during a break between transmissions C. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling the desired party. D. Shout Break Break to show that you re eager to join the conversation B What is the accepted way to ask someone their location when using a repeater A What is your 20? B, Locations are not normally told by radio C. What is your 12 D.Where are you B FM repeater operation on the 2 metre band uses one frequency for transmission and another or reception. The difference in frequency between the transmit and receive frequencies is normally: A khz B. 400 khz C. 600kHz D.800 khz International Phonetic Alphabet text page 11 B To make your call sign better understood when using voice transmissions. what should you do? A Talk louder B. Turn up your microphone gain C. Use Standard International Phonetics for each letter of your call sign D. Use any words which start with the same letters of your call sign for each letter of your call sign B What can you use as an aid for correct station identification when using phone? A Unique words of your choice B. A speech compressor C. The Standard International Phonetic Alphabet D Q Signals B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter A? A Adam B America C Alfa D Able B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter B? A Bravo B Brazil C Borneo D Baker B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter D? A Denmark B David C Delta D Dog B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter E? A Echo B Easy C Edward D England B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter G? A Germany B Gibraltar C Golf D George B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter I? A Iran B Italy C Item D India B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter L? A Lima B Love C London D Luxembourg B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter P? A Paris B Peter C Papa D Portugal B What is the Standard International Phonetic for the letter R? A Roger B Radio C Romania D Romeo

61 HF / VHF / UHF Simplex operation text page B What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using voice? A Say "CQ" at least five times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once B Say "CQ" at least ten times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken once C Say "CQ" three times, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times D Say "CQ" once, followed by "this is," followed by your call sign spoken three times B How should you answer a voice CQ call? A Say the other station's call sign at least three times, followed by "this is," and your call sign at least five times phonetically B Say the other station's call sign at least ten times, followed by "this is," then your call sign at least twice C Say the other station's call sign once, followed by "this is," then your call sign given phonetically D Say the other station's call sign at least five times phonetically, followed by "this is," then your call sign twice B What is simplex operation? A Transmitting one-way communications C Transmitting and receiving over a wide area B Transmitting and receiving on the same frequency D Transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another B When should you consider using simplex operation instead of a repeater? A When an emergency telephone call is needed B When you are traveling and need some local information C When signals are reliable between communicating parties without using a repeater D When the most reliable communications are needed B Why should local amateur communications use VHF and UHF frequencies instead of HF frequencies? A Because signals are stronger on VHF and UHF frequencies B To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-distance communication C Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF D Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally B Why should we be careful in choosing a simplex frequency when operating VHF or UHF FM? A Implanted medical devices share the same spectrum B Some frequencies are designated for narrow band FM and others for wideband FM C You may inadvertently choose a channel that is the input to a local repeater D Interference may be caused to unlicensed devices operating in the same band B If you are talking to a station using a repeater, how canyou find out if you could communicate using simplex instead? A See if you can clearly receive a more distant repeater B See if you can clearly receive the station on a lower frequency band C See if you can clearly receive the station on the repeater's input frequency D See if a third station can clearly receive both of you B If you are operating simplex on a repeater frequency, why is it good amateur practice to change to another frequency? A There are more repeater operators than simplex operators B Changing the repeater's frequency requires the authorization of Industry Canada C Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical D The repeater's output power may ruin your station's receiver B Which sideband is commonly used for 20metre phone operation? A Lower B FM C Double D Upper B Which sideband is commonly used on 3755 khz for phone operation? A FM B Double C Upper D Lower B What is the best method to tell if a band is "open" for communication with a particular distant location? A Ask others on your local 2 metre FM repeater B Telephone an experienced local amateur C Look at the propagation forecasts in an amateur radio magazine D Listen for signals from that area from an amateur beacon station or a foreign broadcast or television station on a nearby frequency

62 62 HF Operation, dummy load, bandplans text page 12 B What should you do before you transmit on any frequency? A Listen to make sure that someone will be able to hear you B Listen to make sure others are not using the frequency C Check your antenna for resonance at the selected frequency D Make sure the SWR on your antenna transmission line is high enough B If you contact another station and your signal is extremely strong and perfectly readable, what adjustment should you make to your transmitter? A Turn on your speech processor B Reduce your SWR C Continue with your contact, making no changes D Turn down your power output to the minimum necessary B What is one way to shorten transmitter tune-up time on the air to cut down on interference? A Tune the transmitter into a dummy load B Use a long wire antenna C Tune up on 40 metres first, then switch to the desired band D Use twin lead instead of coaxial cable transmission lines B How can on-the-air interference be minimized during a lengthy transmitter testing or tuning procedure? A Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading-up procedure B Use a dummy load C Choose an unoccupied frequency D Use a non-resonant antenna B Why would you use a dummy load? A To reduce output power B To test or adjust your transceiver without causing interference C To give comparative signal reports D It is faster to tune B If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins? A Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear you over the existing activity B Cancel the net for that day C Call and ask occupants to relinquish the frequency for the scheduled net operations, but if they are not agreeable, conduct the net on a frequency 3 to 5 khz away from the regular net frequency D Reduce your output power and start the net as usual B If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are using, what should you do? A Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it B Turn off your radio C As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency D Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you B If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do? A Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator B Increase the output power of your transmitter to overcome the interference C Move your contact to another frequency D Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there first B When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (between suppressed carriers) to minimize interference? A Approximately 10 khz B Approximately 3 khz C 150 to 500 Hz D Approximately 6 khz B What is a band plan? A A guideline for deviating from amateur frequency band allocations B A guideline for using different operating modes within an amateur band C A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by Industry Canada D A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest B Before transmitting, the first thing you should do is: A make an announcement on the frequency indicating that you intend to make a call B decrease your receiver's volume C listen carefully so as not to interrupt communications already in progress D ask if the frequency is occupied

63 Morse Code operating procedures text page 12 B What is the correct way to call "CQ" when using Morse code? A Send the letters "CQ" over and over B Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign three times C Send the letters "CQ" three times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent once D Send the letters "CQ" ten times, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign sent once B How should you answer a routine Morse code "CQ" call? A Send your call sign four times B Send the other station's call sign once, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign four times C Send your call sign followed by your name, station location and a signal report D Send the other station's call sign twice, followed by "DE", followed by your call sign twice B At what speed should a Morse code "CQ" call be transmitted? A At any speed below 5 w.p.m. B At the highest speed your keyer will operate C At the highest speed at which you can control the keyer D At any speed which you can reliably receive B What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"? A Calling any station B Call on the quarter hour C An antenna is being tested. D.Only the station "CQ" should answer B What is the meaning of the procedural signal "DE"? A From B Received all correctly C Calling any station D Directional Emissions B What is the meaning of the procedural signal "K"? A Any station please reply B End of message C Called station only transmit D All received correctly B What is meant by the term "DX"? A Distant station B Calling any station C Go ahead D Best regards B What is meant by the term "73"? A Long distance B Love and kisses C Go ahead D Best regards B Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)? A An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission B Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign "BK" C Incoming signals are received between transmitted Morse code dots and dashes D Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys B When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference? A 5 to 50 Hz B 1 to 3 khz C 3 to 6 khz D 150 to 500 Hz B Good Morse telegraphy operators: A listen to the frequency to ensure it s not in use before transmitting B always give stations a good readability report C save time by leaving out spaces between words D tune the transmitter using the operating antenna RST Codes text page 13 B What are "RST" signal reports? A A short way to describe transmitter power B A short way to describe sunspot activity C A short way to describe ionospheric conditions D A short way to describe signal reception B What does "RST" mean in a signal report? A Recovery, signal speed, tone B Readability, signal speed, tempo C Readability, signal strength, tone D Recovery, signal strength, tempo B What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 5 7"? A Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty B Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone C Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak D Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong B What is the meaning of: "Your signal report is 3 3 "? A The station is located at latitude 33 degrees B The contact is serial number 33 C Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and weak in strength D Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength B What is the meaning of: "You are 5 9 plus 20 db"? A You are perfectly readable with a signal strength 20 decibels greater than S 9 B The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity C Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 khz higher D Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100 B A distant station asks for a signal report on a local repeater you monitor. Which fact affects your assessment? A The repeater gain affects your S-meter reading B You need to listen to the repeater input frequency for an accurate signal report C Signal reports are only useful on simplex communications D The other operator needs to know how well he is received at the repeater, not how well you receive the repeater B If the power output of a transmitter is increased by four times, how might a nearby receiver's S-meter reading change? A Increase by approximately one S unit B Increase by approximately four S units C Decrease by approximately four S units D Decrease by approximately one S unit B How much must the power output of a transmitter increase to raise the S-meter reading on a nearby receiver from S8 to S9? A Approximately 5 times B Approximately 3 times C Approximately 2 times D Approximately 4 times B What does "RST 579" mean in a Morse code contact? A Your signal is perfectly readable, moderately strong, and with perfect tone B Your signal is perfectly readable, weak strength, and with perfect tone C Your signal is fairly readable, fair strength, with perfect tone D Your signal is barely readable, moderately strong, and with faint ripple B What does "RST 459" mean in a Morse code contact? A Your signal is very readable, very strong, and with perfect tone B Your signal is barely readable, very weak, and with perfect tone C Your signal is moderately readable, very weak, and with hum on the tone D Your signal is quite readable, fair strength, and with perfect tone B What is the meaning of "Your signal report is 1 1"? A Your signal is first class in readability and first class in strength B Your signal is very readable and very strong C Your signal is unreadable, and barely perceptible D Your signal is 11 db over S9 63

64 64 Q Codes text page 13 B What is the meaning of the Q signal"qrs"? A Send "RST" report B Radio station location is: C Send more slowly D Interference from static B What is one meaning of the Q signal "QTH"? A My location is B Stop sending C My name is D Time here is B What is the proper Q signal to use to see if a frequency is in use before transmitting on CW? A QRZ? B QRL? C QRV? D QRU? B What is one meaning of the Q signal "QSY"? A Use more power B Send faster C Send more slowly D Change frequency B What is the meaning of the Q signal "QSB"? A I have no message B A contact is confirmed C Your signal is fading D I am busy B What is the proper Q signal to ask who is calling you on CW? A QRL? B QRT? C QRZ? D QSL? B The signal "QRM" signifies: A I am troubled by static B your signals are fading C is my transmission being interfered with D I am being interfered with. B The signal "QRN" means: A I am being interfered with B I am troubled by static C I am busy D are you troubled by static B The "Q signal" indicating that you want the if other station to send slower is: A QRN B QRS C QRM D QRL B Who is calling me is denoted by the "Q signal": A QRM? B QRZ? C QRK? D QRP? B The "Q signal" which signifies "I will call you again" is: A QRT B QRX C QRZ D QRS Emergency radio procedures text page 14 B When may you use your amateur station to transmit an "SOS" or "MAYDAY"? A In a life-threatening distress situation B Never C Only at specific times (at 15 and 30 minutes after the hour) D Only in case of a severe weather watch B If you are in contact with another station and you hear an emergency call for help on your frequency, what should you do? A Immediately stop your contact and acknowledge the emergency call B Tell the calling station that the frequency is in use C Direct the calling station to the nearest emergency net frequency D Call your local police station and inform them of the emergency call B What is the proper distress call to use when operating phone? A Say "MAYDAY" several times B Say "SOS" several times C Say "EMERGENCY" several times D Say "HELP" several times B What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW? A QRRR B MAYDAY C SOS D CQD B What is the proper way to interrupt a repeater conversation to signal a distress call? A Break-in immediately following the transmission of the active party and state your situation and call sign B Say "EMERGENCY" three times C Say "SOS," then your call sign D Say "HELP" as many times as it takes to get someone to answer B Why is it a good idea to have a way to operate your amateur station without using commercial AC power lines? A So you may provide communications in an emergency B So you will comply with rules C So you may operate in contests where AC power is not allowed D So you may use your station while mobile B What is the most important accessory to have for a hand-held radio in an emergency? A An extra antenna B A portable amplifier C A microphone headset for hands-free operation D Several sets of charged batteries B Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of an emergency? A A dipole B A parabolic dish C A three-element Yagi D A three-element quad B If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do? A Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance B Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency C Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed D Continue your communication because you were on frequency first B In order of priority, a distress message comes before: A a safety message B an emergency message C no other messages D a government priority message B If you hear distress traffic and are unable to render direct assistance you should: A take no action B tell all other stations to cease transmitting C contact authorities and then maintain watch until you are certain that assistance will be forthcoming D enter the details in the log book and take no further action

65 QSL Cards, Azimuth Map, Log books, UTC text page 14 B What is a "QSL card"? A A postcard reminding you when your certificate will expire B A letter or postcard from an amateur pen pal C A written proof of communication between two amateurs D A Notice of Violation from Industry Canada B What is an azimuthal map? A A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator B A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator C A map projection centred on a particular location, to determine the shortest path between points on the Earth's surface D A map projection centred on the North Pole B What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF antenna toward a distant station? A Topographical B Azimuthal C Mercator D Polar projection B A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is generally oriented how many degrees from its short path heading? A 270 degrees B 180 degrees C 45 degrees D 90 degrees B What method is used by radio amateurs to provide written proof of communication between two amateur stations? A A packet message B A signed post card listing contact date, time, frequency, mode and power, called a "QSL card" C A two-page letter containing a photograph of the operator D A radiogram sent over the CW traffic net B You hear other local stations talking to radio amateurs in New Zealand but you don't hear those stations with your beam aimed on the normal compass bearing to New Zealand. What should you try? A Point your antenna toward Newington, Connecticut B Point your antenna to the north C Point your antenna to the south D Point your beam 180 degrees away from that bearing and listen for the stations arriving on the "long-path" B Which statement about recording all contacts and unanswered "CQ calls" in a station logbook or computer log is not correct? A A log is important for handling neighbour interference complaints B A logbook is required by Industry Canada C A log is important for recording contacts for operating awards D A well-kept log preserves your fondest amateur radio memories for years B Why would it be useful to have an azimuthal world map centred on the location of your station? A Because it looks impressive B Because it shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator C Because it shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite moves west D Because it shows the compass bearing from your station to any place on Earth, for antenna planning and pointing B Station logs and confirmation (QSL) cards are always kept in UTC (Universal Time Coordinated). Where is that time based? A Greenwich, England B Geneva, Switzerland C Ottawa, Canada D Newington, Connecticut B When referring to contacts in the station log, what do the letters UTC mean? A Unlimited Time Capsule B Universal Time Coordinated (formerly Greenwich Mean Time - GMT) C Universal Time Constant D Unlisted Telephone Call B To set your station clock accurately to UTC, you could receive the most accurate time off the air from? A Your local radio station B CHU, WWV or WWVH C A non-directional beacon station D Your local television station 65 HF Station Block diagram text page 17 B A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected: A as close as possible to the antenna B midway between the transceiver and antenna C as close as possible to the transceiver output D as close as possible to the antenna tuner output B A low pass filter in an HF station is most effective when connected: A as close as possible to the antenna tuner output B as close as possible to the linear amplifier input C as close as possible to the linear amplifier output D as close as possible to the antenna B In designing an HF station, which component would you use to reduce the effects of harmonic radiation? A Antenna switch B SWR bridge C Low pass filter D Dummy load B Which component in an HF station is the most useful for determining the effectiveness of the antenna system? A Linear amplifier B Dummy load C SWR bridge D Antenna switch B Of the components in an HF station, which component would normally be connected closest to the antenna, antenna tuner and dummy load? A Transceiver B Low pass filter C SWR bridge D Antenna switch B In a HF station, which component would be used to match impedances between the transceiver and antenna? A SWR bridge B Antenna tuner C Antenna switch D Dummy load B In an HF station, which component is temporarily connected in the tuning process or for adjustments to the transmitter? A Low pass filter B Antenna tuner C Dummy load D SWR bridge B In an HF station, the antenna tuner is usually used for matching the transceiver with: A most antennas when operating below 14 MHz B most antennas when operating above 14 MHz C mono-band Yagi type antennas D tri-band Yagi antennas B In an HF Station, the antenna tuner is commonly used: A to tune low pass filters B with most antennas when operating below 14 MHz C with most antennas when operating above 14 MHz D to tune into dummy loads

66 66 FM Transmitter Block diagram text page 18 B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the input to the speech amplifier is connected to the: A modulator B power amplifier C frequency multiplier D microphone B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the microphone is connected to the: A power amplifier B oscillator C speech amplifier D modulator B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the is in between the speech amplifier and the oscillator. A modulator B power amplifier C microphone D frequency multiplier B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the is located between the modulator and the frequency multiplier. A power amplifier B microphone C oscillator D speech amplifier B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the is located between the oscillator and the power amplifier. A modulator B frequency multiplier C microphone D speech amplifier B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the is located between the frequency multiplier and the antenna. A modulator B speech amplifier C oscillator D power amplifier B In a frequency modulation transmitter, the power amplifier output is connected to the: A frequency multiplier B microphone C modulator D antenna FM Receiver block diagram text page 18 B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is connected to the input of the radio frequency amplifier. A mixer B frequency discriminator C limiter D antenna B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is in between the antenna and the mixer. A audio frequency amplifier B local oscillator C intermediate frequency amplifier D radio frequency amplifier B In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the local oscillator is fed to the: A limiter B antenna C mixer D radio frequency amplifier B In a frequency modulation receiver, the output of the is connected to the mixer. A local oscillator B frequency discriminator C intermediate frequency amplifier D speaker or headphones B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is in between the mixer and the intermediate frequency amplifier. A limiter B frequency discriminator C radio frequency amplifier D filter B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is located between the filter and the limiter. A mixer B radio frequency amplifier C intermediate frequency amplifier D local oscillator B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is in between the intermediate frequency amplifier and the frequency discriminator. A radio frequency amplifier B limiter C filter D local oscillator B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is located between the limiter and the audio frequency amplifier. A speaker or headphones B local oscillator C frequency discriminator D intermediate frequency amplifier B In a frequency modulation receiver, the is located between the speaker or headphones and the frequency discriminator. A intermediate frequency amplifier B radio frequency amplifier C audio frequency amplifier D limiter B In a frequency modulation receiver, the connects to the audio frequency amplifier output. A intermediate frequency amplifier B frequency discriminator C limiter D speaker or headphones CW Transmitter block diagram text page 18 B In a CW transmitter, the output from the is connected to the driver/buffer. A telegraph key B power supply C master oscillator D power amplifier B In a typical CW transmitter, the is the primary source of direct current. A master oscillator B power supply C driver/buffer D power amplifier B In a CW transmitter, the is between the master oscillator and the power amplifier. A driver/buffer B audio amplifier C power supply D telegraph key B In a CW transmitter, the controls when RF energy is applied to the antenna. A driver/buffer B power amplifier C telegraph key D master oscillator B In a CW transmitter, the is in between the driver/buffer stage and the antenna. A power amplifier B power supply C telegraph key D master oscillator B In a CW transmitter, the output of the is transferred to the antenna. A driver/buffer B power supply C master oscillator D power amplifier

67 CW and SSB Receiver block diagram text page B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the antenna is connected to the. A local oscillator B intermediate frequency amplifier C radio frequency amplifier D product detector B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the is connected to the mixer. A radio frequency amplifier B filter C intermediate frequency amplifier D audio frequency amplifier B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the is connected to the radio frequency amplifier and the local oscillator. A mixer B beat frequency oscillator C product detector D filter B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the is connected to the mixer. A local oscillator B intermediate frequency amplifier C beat frequency oscillator D product detector B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the is in between the mixer and intermediate frequency amplifier. A product detector B filter C radio frequency amplifier D beat frequency oscillator B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the is in between the filter and product detector. A radio frequency amplifier B intermediate frequency amplifier C audio frequency amplifier D beat frequency oscillator B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output is connected to the audio frequency amplifier. A local oscillator B beat frequency oscillator C intermediate frequency amplifier D product detector B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the output of the is connected to the product detector. A beat frequency oscillator B mixer C radio frequency amplifier D audio frequency amplifier B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the is connected to the output of the product detector. A local oscillator B radio frequency amplifier C audio frequency amplifier D intermediate frequency amplifier B In a single sideband and CW receiver, the is connected to the output of the audio frequency amplifier. A beat frequency oscillator B speaker or headphones C mixer D radio frequency amplifier SSB Transmitter block diagram text page 19 B In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the is connected to the balanced modulator. A mixer B radio frequency oscillator C variable frequency oscillator D linear amplifier B In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the is connected to the filter. A mixer B radio frequency oscillator C balanced modulator D microphone B In a single sideband transmitter, the is in between the balanced modulator and the mixer. A speech amplifier B microphone C filter D radio frequency oscillator B In a single sideband transmitter, the is connected to the speech amplifier. A radio frequency oscillator B filter C mixer D microphone B In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the is connected to the balanced modulator. A filter B variable frequency oscillator C linear amplifier D speech amplifier B In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the variable frequency oscillator is connected to the. A balanced modulator B linear amplifier C mixer D antenna B In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the is connected to the mixer. A linear amplifier B antenna C variable frequency oscillator D radio frequency oscillator B In an single sideband transmitter, the is in between the mixer and the antenna. A variable frequency oscillator B balanced modulator C radio frequency oscillator D linear amplifier B In a single sideband transmitter, the output of the linear amplifier is connected to the. A speech amplifier B antenna C filter D variable frequency oscillator Digital Radio Block diagram text page 20 B In an amateur digital radio system, the interfaces with the computer. A transceiver B input/output C antenna D power supply B In an amateur digital radio system, the modem is connected to the. A amplifier B antenna C input/output D computer B In an amateur digital radio system, the transceiver is connected to the. A input/output B modem C computer D scanner B In an amateur digital radio system, the audio connections of the modem/sound card are connected to the A transceiver B input/output C scanner D antenna B In an amateur digital radio system, the modem function is often performed by the computer. A sound card B keyboard C scanner D serial port

68 68 Regulated Power Supply Block diagram text page 20 B In a regulated power supply, the transformer connects to an external source which is referred to as A regulator B filter C rectifier D input B In a regulated power supply, the is between the input and the rectifier. A output B regulator C filter D transformer B In a regulated power supply, the is between the transformer and the filter. A output B regulator C rectifier D input B In a regulated power supply, the output of the rectifier is connected to the. A transformer B regulator C filter D output B In a regulated power supply, the output of the filter connects to the. A transformer B rectifier C output D regulator B In a regulated power supply, the is connected to the regulator. A input B transformer C output D rectifier Yagi Antenna, 3 Element text page 20 B In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the is primarily for mechanical support purposes. A driven element B director C boom D reflector B In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the is the longest radiating element. A reflector B director C driven element D boom B In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the is the shortest radiating element. A reflector B driven element C director D boom B In a Yagi 3 element directional antenna, the is not the longest nor the shortest radiating element. A director B reflector C driven element D boom HF Receiver Fundamentals text page 21 B Which list of emission types is in order from the narrowest bandwidth to the widest bandwidth? A CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice B CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice C CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice D RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice B The figure in a receiver's specifications which indicates its sensitivity is the: A bandwidth of the IF in kilohertz C RF input signal needed to achieve a given signal plus noise to noise ratio B number of RF amplifiers D audio output in watts B If two receivers of different sensitivity are compared, the less sensitive receiver will produce: A less signal or more noise B a steady oscillator drift C more than one signal D more signal or less noise B Which of the following modes of transmission is usually detected with a product detector? A Double sideband full carrier B Frequency modulation C Pulse modulation D Single sideband suppressed carrier B A receiver designed for SSB reception must have a BFO (beat frequency oscillator) because: A it beats with the received carrier to produce the other sideband B it reduces the passband of the IF stages C it phases out the unwanted sideband signal D the suppressed carrier must be replaced for detection B A receiver receives an incoming signal of 3.54 MHz, and the local oscillator produces a signal of MHz. To which frequency should the IF be tuned? A MHz B 3.54 MHz C 455 khz D MHz B What kind of filter would you use to attenuate an interfering carrier signal while receiving an SSB transmission? A An all pass filter B A pi-network filter C A notch filter D A band pass filter B The three main parameters against which the quality of a receiver is measured are: A sensitivity, selectivity and stability B selectivity, stability and frequency range C sensitivity, stability and cross-modulation D sensitivity, selectivity and image rejection B A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, respectively designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 khz, and 6 khz. If you were listening to single sideband, which filter would you utilize? A 500 Hz B 2.4 khz C 250 Hz D 6 khz B A communications receiver has four filters installed in it, designated as 250 Hz, 500 Hz, 2.4 khz and 6 khz. You are copying a CW transmission and there is a great deal of interference. Which one of the filters would you choose? A 6 khz B 250 Hz C 500 Hz D 2.4 khz B Selectivity can be placed in the audio stages of a receiver by the utilization of RC active or passive audio filters. If you were to copy CW, which of the following bandpasses would you choose? A Hz B Hz C Hz D Hz

69 HF Transmitter and AM fundamentals text page 21 B What does chirp mean? A A slow change in transmitter frequency as the circuit warms up B overload in a receiver's audio circuit whenever CW is received C A small change in a transmitter's frequency each time it is keyed D A high-pitched tone which is received along with a CW signal B What can be done to keep a CW transmitter from chirping? A Add a low pass filter B Keep the power supply voltages very steady under transmit load C Add a key-click filter D Keep the power supply current very steady under transmit load B What circuit has a variable-frequency oscillator connected to a buffer/driver and a power amplifier? A A crystal-controlled AM transmitter B A single-sideband transmitter C A digital radio transmitter D A VFO-controlled CW transmitter B What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the purpose of conveying information? A Frequency modulation B Amplitude modulation C Phase modulation D Amplitude-rectification modulation B In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF signal vary in according to the modulating audio? A Frequency shift keying B Amplitude modulation C Frequency modulation D Pulse modulation B Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as: A an interrupted carrier B a series of key-clicks C a continuous carrier D a voice-modulated carrier B A mismatched antenna or transmission line may present an incorrect load to the transmitter. The result may be: A the driver stage will not deliver power to the final B the output tank circuit breaks down C full power will not be transferred to the antenna D loss of modulation in the transmitted signal B One result of a slight mismatch between the power amplifier of a transmitter and the antenna would be: A lower modulation percentage B radiated key-clicks C reduced antenna radiation D smaller DC current drain B An RF oscillator should be electrically and mechanically stable. This is to ensure that the oscillator does not: A cause undue distortion B drift in frequency C become over modulated D generate key-clicks B The input power to the final stage of your transmitter is 200 watts and the output is 125 watts. What has happened to the remaining power? A It has been used to provide positive feedback B It has been dissipated as heat loss C It has been used to provide greater efficiency D It has been used to provide negative feedback B The difference between DC input power and RF output power of a transmitter RF amplifier: A appears as heat dissipation B is lost in the transmission line C is due to oscillating D radiates from the antenna SSB Fundamentals text page 21 B What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with the microphone gain set too high? A It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna B It may cause digital interference to computer equipment C It may cause splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency D It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band B What may happen if an SSB transmitter is operated with too much speech processing? A It may cause digital interference to computer equipment B It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna C It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band D It may cause audio distortion or splatter interference to other stations operating near its frequency B What is the term for the average power supplied to an antenna transmission line during one RF cycle, at the crest of the modulation envelope? A Average radio-frequency power B Peak transmitter power C Peak envelope power D Peak output power B What is the usual bandwidth of a single-sideband amateur signal? A Between 2 and 3 khz B 1 khz C 2 khz D Between 3 and 6 khz B In a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer? A RF amplifier B Carrier oscillator C Filter D IF amplifier B What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband phone transmission? A More power can be put into the sidebands for a given power amplifier capacity B Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content C Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion D Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressed-carrier signal B What happens to the signal of an over modulated single-sideband or double-sideband phone transmitter? A It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio B It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth C It becomes stronger with no other effects D It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response B How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone transmitter? A For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks B For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks C For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks D For a dip in plate current B The purpose of a balanced modulator in an SSB transmitter is to: A suppress the carrier and pass on the two sidebands B make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are 180 degrees out of phase C ensure that the percentage of modulation is kept constant D make sure that the carrier and both sidebands are in phase B In a SSB transmission, the carrier is: A transmitted with one sideband B inserted at the transmitter C of no use at the receiver D reinserted at the receiver B The automatic level control (ALC) in a SSB transmitter: A reduces the system noise B controls the peak audio input so that the power amplifier is not overdriven C reduces transmitter audio feedback D increases the occupied bandwidth 69

70 70 FM Fundamentals text page 21 B What may happen if an FM transmitter is operated with the microphone gain or deviation control set too high? A It may cause digital interference to computer equipment B It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna C It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band D It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency B What may your FM hand-held or mobile do if you shout into its microphone and the deviation adjustment is set too high? A It may cause atmospheric interference in the air around the antenna B It may cause interference to other stations operating on a higher frequency band C It may cause interference to other stations operating near its frequency D It may cause digital interference to computer equipment B What can you do if you are told your FM hand-held or mobile transceiver is over deviating? A Let the transceiver cool off B Change to a higher power level C Talk farther away from the microphone D Talk louder into the microphone B What kind of emission would your FM transmitter produce if its microphone failed to work? A A phase-modulated carrier B An unmodulated carrier C A frequency-modulated carrier D An amplitude-modulated carrier B Why is FM voice best for local VHF/UHF radio communications? A It is more resistant to distortion caused by reflected signals B Its RF carrier stays on frequency better than the AM modes C It provides good signal plus noise to noise ratio at low RF signal levels D The carrier is not detectable B What is the usual bandwidth of a frequency-modulated amateur signal for +/- 5kHz deviation? A Between 5 and 10 khz B Greater than 20 khz C Between 10 and 20 khz D Less than 5 khz B What is the result of over deviation in an FM transmitter? A Increased transmitter range B Poor carrier suppression C Out-of-channel emissions D Increased transmitter power B What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power amplifier? A Phase modulation B Multiplex modulation C Amplitude modulation D Pulse modulation B Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 28.0 MHz? A The bandwidth would exceed limits in the Regulations B The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low C Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels D The frequency stability would not be adequate B You are transmitting FM on the 2 metre band. Several stations advise you that your transmission is loud and distorted. A quick check with a frequency counter tells you that the transmitter is on the proper frequency. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the distortion? A The repeater is reversing your sidebands B The frequency counter is giving an incorrect reading and you are indeed off frequency C The frequency deviation of your transmitter is set too high D The power supply output voltage is low B When two or more FM stations are present the strongest signal, even though it is only two or three times stronger than the other signals, will be the only transmission demodulated. This is called: A attach effect B interference effect C surrender effect D capture effect Station Accessories text page 22 B What do many amateurs use to help form good Morse code characters? A A key-operated on/off switch B A notch filter C A DTMF keypad D An electronic keyer B Where would you connect a microphone for voice operation? A To a transceiver B To a power supply C To an antenna switch D To an antenna B What would you connect to a transceiver for voice operation? A A microphone B A receiver audio filter C A terminal-voice controller D A splatter filter B Why might a dummy antenna get warm when in use? A Because it stores electric current B Because it changes RF energy into heat C Because it absorbs static electricity D Because it stores radio waves B What is the circuit called which causes a transmitter to automatically transmit when an operator speaks into its microphone? A VFO B VOX C VXO D VCO B What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a single-sideband phone transmitter? A It reduces average transmitter power requirements B It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone C It improves voice frequency fidelity D It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver B If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech processor do to the transmitter's power? A It will increase the output PEP B It will decrease the peak power output C It will decrease the average power output D It will add nothing to the output Peak Envelope Power (PEP) B When switching from receive to transmit: A the receiver should be muted B the transmit oscillator should be turned off C the receiving antenna should be connected D the power supply should be off B A switching system to enable the use of one antenna for a transmitter and receiver should also: A disconnect the antenna tuner B disable the unit not being used C ground the antenna on receive D switch between meters B An antenna changeover switch in a transmitter-receiver combination is necessary: A to change antennas for operation on other frequencies B to prevent RF currents entering the receiver circuits C to allow more than one transmitter to be used D so that one antenna can be used for transmitter and receiver B Which of the following components could be used as a dynamic microphone? A Capacitor B Loudspeaker C Crystal earpiece D Resistor

71 Digital / Packet Radio text page 22 B What does "connected" mean in an AX.25 packet-radio link? A telephone link is working between two stations B A message has reached an amateur station for local delivery C A transmitting and receiving station are using a digipeater, so no other contacts can take place until they are finished D A transmitting station is sending data to only one receiving station; it replies that data is being received correctly B What does "monitoring" mean on a packet-radio frequency? A Industry Canada is monitoring all messages B A receiving station is displaying messages that may not be sent to it, and is not replying to any message C A member of the Amateur Auxiliary is copying all messages D A receiving station is displaying all messages sent to it, and replying that the messages are being received correctly B What is a digipeater? A A repeater built using only digital electronics parts B A repeater that changes audio signals to digital data C A station that retransmits any data that it receives D A station that retransmits only data that is marked to be retransmitted B What does "network" mean in packet radio? A The connections on terminal-node controllers B The programming in a terminal-node controller that rejects other callers if a station is already connected C A way of connecting packet-radio stations so data can be sent over long distances D A way of connecting terminal-node controllers by telephone so data can be sent over long distances B In AX.25 packet-radio operation, what equipment connects to a terminal-node controller? A A DTMF keypad, a monitor and a transceiver B A DTMF microphone, a monitor and a transceiver C A transceiver, a computer and possibly a GPS receiver D A transceiver and a modem B How would you modulate a 2 meter FM transceiver to produce packet-radio emissions? A Connect a terminal-node controller to the transceiver's microphone input B Connect a terminal-node controller to interrupt the transceiver's carrier wave C Connect a keyboard to the transceiver's microphone input D Connect a DTMF key pad to the transceiver's microphone input B When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (centre to centre) to minimize interference? A Approximately 6 khz B Approximately 3 khz C 60 Hz D 250 to 500 Hz B Digital transmissions use signals called to transmit the states 1 and 0: A dot and dash B mark and space C packet and AMTOR D Baudot and ASCII B Which of the following terms does not apply to packet radio? A Baudot B ASCII C Automatic Packet Reporting System (APRS) D AX.25 B When using AMTOR transmissions, there are two modes that may be utilized. Mode A uses Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ) protocol and is normally used: A for communications after contact has been established B at all times. Mode B is for test purposes only C only when communications have been completed D when making a general call B With a computer sound card digital communication mode, what is the result of feeding too much audio in the transceiver? A Power amplifier overheating B Splatter or out-of-channel emissions C Higher signal-to-noise ratio D Lower error rate Batteries text page 23 B How much voltage does a standard automobile battery usually supply? A About 9 volts B About 12 volts C About 240 volts D About 120 volts B Which component has a positive and a negative side? A A fuse B A resistor C A battery D A potentiometer B A cell, that can be repeatedly recharged by supplying it with electrical energy, is known as a: A primary cell B storage cell C low leakage cell D memory cell B Which of the following is a source of electromotive force (EMF)? A germanium diode B P channel FET C carbon resistor D lithium-ion battery B An important difference between a conventional flashlight battery and a lead acid battery is that only the lead acid battery: A has two terminals B can be completely discharged C contains an electrolyte D can be repeatedly recharged B An alkaline cell has a nominal voltage of 1.5 volts. When supplying a great deal of current, the voltage may drop to 1.2 volts. This is caused by the cell's: A voltage capacity B internal resistance C electrolyte becoming dry D current capacity B An inexpensive primary cell in use today is the carbon-zinc or flashlight cell. This type of cell can be recharged: A never B twice C many times D once B Battery capacity is commonly stated as a value of current delivered over a specified period of time. What is the effect of exceeding that specified current? A The battery will accept the subsequent charge in shorter time B The voltage delivered will be higher C A battery charge will not last as long D The internal resistance of the cell is short-circuited B To increase the current capacity of a cell, several cells should be connected in: A parallel B series C parallel resonant D series resonant B To increase the voltage output, several cells are connected in: A parallel B series-parallel C resonance D series B A lithium-ion battery should never be: A short-circuited B recharged C left disconnected D left overnight at room temperature 71

72 72 Power Supplies text page 23 B If your mobile transceiver works in your car but not in your home, what should you check first? A The power supply B The speaker C The microphone D The SWR meter B What device converts household current to 12 volts DC? A A low pass filter B An RS-232 interface C A catalytic converter D A power supply B Which of these usually needs a high current capacity power supply? A A receiver B An SWR meter C A transceiver D An antenna switch B What may cause a buzzing or hum in the signal of an AC-powered transmitter? A Energy from another transmitter B Bad design of the transmitter's RF power output circuit C A bad filter capacitor in the transmitter's power supply D Using an antenna which is the wrong length B A power supply is to supply DC at 12 volts at 5 amperes. The power transformer should be rated higher than: A 6 watts B 60 watts C 17 watts D 2.4 watts B The diode is an important part of a simple power supply. It converts AC to DC, since it: A has a high resistance to DC but not to AC B allows electrons to flow in only one direction from anode to cathode C allows electrons to flow in only one direction from cathode to anode D has a high resistance to AC but not to DC B To convert AC to pulsating DC, you could use a: A diode B transformer C capacitor D resistor B Power-line voltages have been standardized over time and the voltages generally supplied to homes are approximately: A 120 and 240 volts B 110 and 220 volts C 100 and 200 volts D 130 and 260 volts B Your mobile HF transceiver draws 22 amperes on transmit. The manufacturer suggests limiting voltage drop to 0.5 volt and the vehicle battery is 3 metres (10 feet) away. Given the losses below at that current, which minimum wire gauge must you use? A Number 8, 0.05 V per metre (0.01 V per foot) B Number 12, 0.11 V per metre (0.03 V per foot) C Number 14, 0.19 V per metre (0.06 V per foot) D Number 10, 0.07 V per metre (0.02 V per foot) B Why are fuses needed as close as possible to the vehicle battery when wiring a transceiver directly to the battery? A To protect the radio from transient voltages B To prevent an over current situation from starting a fire C To prevent interference to the vehicle's electronic systems D To reduce the voltage drop in the radio's DC supply B If a very loud low-frequency hum appears on your transmission in what part of the transmitter do you first look for the trouble? A The driver circuit B The power amplifier circuit C The power supply D The variable-frequency oscillator Electrical Safety text page 24 B How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using your amateur station at home? A Put a "Danger - High Voltage" sign in the station B Put fuses in the main power line C Use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line D Use a carrier-operated relay in the main power line B How could you best keep unauthorized persons from using a mobile amateur station in your car? A Turn the radio off when you are not using it B Put a "Do not touch" sign on the radio C Disconnect the microphone when you are not using it D Tune the radio to an unused frequency when you are done using it B Why would you use a key-operated on/off switch in the main power line of your station? A For safety, to turn off the station in the event of an emergency B To keep unauthorized persons from using your station C For safety, in case the main fuses fail D To keep the power company from turning off your electricity during an emergency B Why would there be a switch in a high-voltage power supply to turn off the power if its cabinet is opened? A To keep dangerous RF radiation from leaking out through an open cabinet B To keep dangerous RF radiation from coming in through an open cabinet C To turn the power supply off when it is not being used D To keep anyone opening the cabinet from getting shocked by dangerous high voltages B How little electrical current flowing through the human body can be fatal? A More than 20 amperes B Current flow through the human body is never fatal C As little as 20 milliamperes D Approximately 10 amperes B Which body organ can be fatally affected by a very small amount of electrical current? A The liver B The lungs C The heart D The brain B What is the minimum voltage which is usually dangerous to humans? A 2000 volts B 30 volts C 100 volts D 1000 volts B What should you do if you discover someone who is being burned by high voltage? A Immediately drag the person away from the high voltage B Run from the area so you won't be burned too C Turn off the power, call for emergency help and provide first-aid if needed D Wait for a few minutes to see if the person can get away from the high voltage on their own, then try to help B What is the safest method to remove an unconscious person from contact with a high voltage source? A Call an electrician B Remove the person by pulling an arm or a leg C Turn off the high voltage switch before removing the person from contact with the source D Wrap the person in a blanket and pull him to a safe area B Before checking a fault in a mains operated power supply unit, it would be safest to first: A check action of capacitor bleeder resistance B remove and check fuse from power supply C turn off the power and remove power plug D short out leads of filter capacitor B Fault finding in a power supply of a transmitter while the supply is operating is not recommended because of the risk of: A over modulation B blowing the fuse C electric shock D damaging the transmitter

73 Grounding Safety text page 24 B For best protection from electrical shock, what should be grounded in an amateur station? A All station equipment B The antenna transmission line C The AC power line D The power supply primary B If a separate ground system is not possible for your amateur station, an alternative indoor grounding point could be: A a metallic cold water pipe B a plastic cold water pipe C a window screen D a metallic natural gas pipe B To protect you against electrical shock, the chassis of each piece of your station equipment should be connected to: A a dummy load B insulated shock mounts C the antenna D a good ground connection B Which of these materials is best for a ground rod driven into the earth? A Iron or steel B Fibreglass C Copper-clad steel D Hard plastic B If you ground station equipment to a ground rod driven into the earth, what is the shortest length the rod should be? A 1.2 metre (4 ft) B 2.5 metres (8 ft) C 3 metres (10 ft) D The station ground system must conform to the applicable electrical code B Where should the green wire in a three-wire AC line cord be connected in a power supply? A To the fuse B To the chassis C To the white wire D To the "hot" side of the power switch B If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 10 metres (33 feet) down to a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you touch the front panel of your HF transceiver? A Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working to start the cooling fan B Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist earth C Because the ground wire has significant reactance and acts more like an antenna than an RF ground connection D Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy to take an easier path out of the transceiver through you B What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur station? A Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity B Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible C Make two loops in the ground wire where it connects to the station D Drive a ground rod at least 4m (14 feet) into the ground B Which statement about station grounding is true? A If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground B The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together with high-impedance conductors C RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the equipment is grounded by a long ground wire D A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment B On mains operated power supplies, the ground wire should be connected to the metal chassis of the power supply. This ensures, in case there is a fault in the power supply, that the chassis: A develops a high voltage compared to the ground B does not develop a high voltage with respect to the ground C does not become conductive to prevent electric shock D becomes conductive to prevent electric shock B The purpose of using a three-wire power cord and plug on amateur radio equipment is to: A prevent the plug from being reversed in the wall outlet B prevent internal short circuits C make it inconvenient to use D prevent the chassis from becoming live Antenna Safety text page 24 B Why should you ground all antenna and rotator cables when your amateur station is not in use? A To lock the antenna system in one position B To avoid radio frequency interference C To make sure everything will stay in place D To help protect the station equipment and building from lightning damage B You want to install a lightning arrestor on your antenna transmission line, where should it be inserted? A Anywhere on the line B Outside, as close to earth grounding as possible C Close to the antenna D Behind the transceiver B How can amateur station equipment best be protected from lightning damage? A Never turn off the equipment B Disconnect the ground system from all radios C Disconnect all equipment from the power lines and antenna cables D Use heavy insulation on the wiring B What equipment should be worn for working on an antenna tower? A A grounding chain B Approved equipment in accordance with applicable standards concerning fall protection C A reflective vest of approved colour D A flashing red, yellow or white light B Why should you wear approved fall arrest equipment if you are working on an antenna tower? A To keep the tower from becoming unbalanced while you are working B To safely hold your tools so they don't fall and injure someone on the ground C To prevent you from accidentally falling D To safely bring any tools you might use up and down the tower B For safety, how high should you place a horizontal wire antenna? A As close to the ground as possible B High enough so that no one can touch any part of it from the ground C Above high-voltage electrical lines D Just high enough so you can easily reach it for adjustments or repairs B Why should you wear a hard hat if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower? A So someone passing by will know that work is being done on the tower and will stay away B To protect your head from something dropped from the tower C So you won't be hurt if the tower should accidentally fall D To keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing B Why should your outside antennas be high enough so that no one can touch them while you are transmitting? A Touching the antenna might radiate harmonics B Touching the antenna might cause television interference C Touching the antenna might cause RF burns D Touching the antenna might reflect the signal back to the transmitter and cause damage B Why should you ensure no one can touch an open wire transmission line while you are transmitting with it? A Because it might cause a short circuit and damage the transmitter B Because high-voltage radio energy might burn the person C Because contact might break the transmission line D Because contact might cause spurious emissions B What safety precautions should you take before beginning repairs on an antenna? A Turn off the main power switch in your house B Be sure to turn off the transmitter and disconnect the transmission line C Be sure you and the antenna structure are grounded D Inform your neighbours so they are aware of your intentions B What precaution should you take when installing a ground-mounted antenna? A It should not be installed in a wet area B It should not be installed higher than you can reach C It should be installed so no one can come in contact with it D Paint it so people or animals do not accidentally run into it 73

74 74 Radio Frequency Safety text page 24 B What should you do for safety when operating at UHF and microwave frequencies? A Keep antenna away from your eyes when RF is applied B Make sure that an RF leakage filter is installed at the antenna feed point C Make sure the standing wave ratio is low before you conduct a test D Never use a horizontally polarized antenna B What should you do for safety if you put up a UHF transmitting antenna? A Make sure the antenna is near the ground to keep its RF energy pointing in the correct direction B Make sure you connect an RF leakage filter at the antenna feed point C Make sure that RF field screens are in place D Make sure the antenna will be in a place where no one can get near it when you are transmitting B What should you do for safety, before removing the shielding on a UHF power amplifier? A Make sure the amplifier cannot accidentally be turned on B Make sure that RF leakage filters are connected C Make sure the antenna transmission line is properly grounded D Make sure all RF screens are in place at the antenna transmission line B Why should you make sure the antenna of a hand-held transceiver is not close to your head when transmitting? A To keep static charges from building up B To help the antenna radiate energy equally in all directions C To reduce your exposure to the radio-frequency energy D To use your body to reflect the signal in one direction B How should you position the antenna of a hand-held transceiver while you are transmitting? A Away from your head and away from others B Pointed towards the station you are contacting C Pointed away from the station you are contacting D Pointed down to bounce the signal off the ground B How can exposure to a large amount of RF energy affect body tissue? A It paralyzes the tissue B It causes hair to fall out C It heats the tissue D It lowers blood pressure B Which body organ is the most likely to be damaged from the heating effects of RF radiation? A Eyes B Heart C Liver D Hands B Considering signal wavelength, RF field energy density, and other factors, how can RF energy affect body tissue? A It has no effect on the body B It heats the tissue C It causes ionizing radiation poisoning D It causes blood flow to stop B If you operate your amateur station with indoor antennas, what precautions should you take when you install them? A Locate the antennas close to your operating position to minimize transmission line length B Locate the antennas as far away as possible from living spaces that will be occupied while you are operating C Position the antennas parallel to electrical power wires to take advantage of parasitic effects D Position the antennas along the edge of a wall where it meets the floor or ceiling to reduce parasitic radiation B Why should directional high-gain antennas be mounted higher than nearby structures? A So they will be dried by the wind after a heavy rain storm B So they will not damage nearby structures with RF energy C So they will receive more sky waves and fewer ground waves D So they will not direct RF energy toward people in nearby structures B For best RF safety, where should the ends and centre of a dipole antenna be located? A Close to the ground so simple adjustments can be easily made without climbing a ladder B As high as possible to prevent people from coming in contact with the antenna C Near or over moist ground so RF energy will be radiated away from the ground D As close to the transmitter as possible so RF energy will be concentrated near the transmitter Amplifier fundamentals text page 25 B A circuit designed to increase the level of its input signal is called: A a modulator B an oscillator C a receiver D an amplifier B If an amplifier becomes non-linear, the output signal would: A cause oscillations B overload the power supply C become distorted D be saturated B To increase the level of very weak radio signals from an antenna, you would use: A an audio amplifier B an RF amplifier C an RF oscillator D an audio oscillator B To increase the level of very weak signals from a microphone you would use: A an RF oscillator B an RF amplifier C an audio oscillator D an audio amplifier B The range of frequencies to be amplified by a speech amplifier is typically: A 3 to 300 Hz B 300 to 1000 Hz C 40 to Hz D 300 to 3000 Hz B Which of the following is not amplified by an amplifier? A Voltage B Resistance C Current D Power B The increase in signal level by an amplifier is called: A modulation B gain C attenuation D amplitude B A device with gain has the property of: A modulation B amplification C attenuation D oscillation B A device labelled "Gain = 10 db" is likely to be an: A audio fader B amplifier C attenuator D oscillator B Amplifiers can amplify: A voltage, current, or inductance C current, power, or inductance B voltage, current, or power D voltage, power, or inductance B Which of the following is not a property of an amplifier? A Loss B Gain C Linearity D Distortion

75 Diodes text page 25 B Zener diodes are used as: A current regulators B RF detectors C AF detectors D voltage regulators B One important application for diodes is recovering information from transmitted signals. This is referred to as: A regeneration B ionization C biasing D demodulation B The primary purpose of a Zener diode is to: A regulate or maintain a constant voltage B provide a voltage phase shift C to boost the power supply voltage D provide a path through which current can flow B The action of changing alternating current to direct current is called: A rectification B amplification C transformation D modulation B The electrodes of a semiconductor diode are known as: A anode and cathode B gate and source C collector and base D cathode and drain B If alternating current is applied to the anode of a diode, what would you expect to see at the cathode? A Pulsating alternating current B Pulsating direct current C No signal D Steady direct current B In a semiconductor diode, electrons flow from: A cathode to grid B grid to anode C cathode to anode D anode to cathode B What semiconductor device glows different colours, depending upon its chemical composition? A A neon bulb B A vacuum diode C A light-emitting diode D A fluorescent bulb B Voltage regulation is the principal application of the: A light-emitting diode B vacuum diode C Zener diode D junction diode B In order for a diode to conduct, it must be: A reverse-biased B forward-biased C close coupled D enhanced Semi-Conductors, Bi-Polar Transistors text page 25 B Which component can amplify a small signal using low voltages? A A multiple-cell battery B A PNP transistor C A variable resistor D An electrolytic capacitor B The basic semiconductor amplifying device is the: A tube B P-N junction C diode D transistor B The three leads from a PNP transistor are named: A collector, source and drain B gate, source and drain C collector, emitter and base D drain, base and source B If a low level signal is placed at a transistor input, a higher level of signal is produced at the output. This effect is: A rectification B amplification C detection D modulation B Bipolar transistors usually have: A 2 leads B 4 leads C 3 leads D 1 lead B A semiconductor is described as a "general purpose audio NPN device". This would be: A a bipolar transistor B a silicon diode C a triode D an audio detector B The two basic types of bipolar transistors are: A varicap and Zener types B P and N channel types C NPN and PNP types D diode and triode types B A transistor can be destroyed in a circuit by: A saturation B cut-off C excessive heat D excessive light B In a bipolar transistor, the compares closest to the control grid of a triode vacuum tube. A collector B base C emitter D source B In a bipolar transistor, the compares closest to the plate of a triode vacuum tube. A gate B emitter C base D collector B In a bipolar transistor, the compares closest to the cathode of a triode vacuum tube. A emitter B collector C base D drain Field Effect Transistors text page 25 B The two basic types of field effect transistors (FET) are: A inductive and capacitive B N and P channel C NPN and PNP D germanium and silicon B A semiconductor having its leads labelled gate, drain, and source is best described as a: A silicon diode B field-effect transistor C gated transistor D bipolar transistor B In a field effect transistor, the is the terminal that controls the conductance of the channel. A drain B source C collector D gate B In a field effect transistor, the is the terminal where the charge carriers enter the channel. A emitter B source C gate D drain B In a field effect transistor, the is the terminal where the charge carriers leave the channel. A collector B source C gate D drain B Which semiconductor device has characteristics most similar to a triode vacuum tube? A Bipolar transistor B Field effect transistor C Junction diode D Zener diode B The control element in the field effect transistor is the: A gate B source C drain D base B If you wish to reduce the current flowing in a field effect transistor, you could: A decrease the reverse bias voltage B increase the forward bias voltage C increase the forward bias gain D increase the reverse bias voltage B The source of a field effect transistor corresponds to the of a bipolar transistor. A base B drain C collector D emitter B The drain of a field effect transistor corresponds to the of a bipolar transistor. A base B source C emitter D collector B Which two elements in a field effect transistor exhibit fairly similar characteristics? A Source and base B Source and drain C Source and gate D Gate and drain 75

76 76 Vacuum Tubes text page 26 B What is one reason a triode vacuum tube might be used instead of a transistor in a circuit? A It is much smaller B It uses lower voltages C It may be able to handle higher power D It uses less current B Which component can amplify a small signal but must use high voltages? A A multiple-cell battery B A vacuum tube C A transistor D An electrolytic capacitor B A feature common to triode tubes and transistors is that both: A convert electrical energy to radio waves B use heat to cause electron movement C can amplify signals D have electrons drifting through a vacuum B In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is operated with the highest positive potential is the. A plate B filament (heater) C cathode D grid B In a vacuum tube, the electrode that is usually a cylinder of wire mesh is the. A filament (heater) B cathode C plate D grid B In a vacuum tube, the element that is furthest away from the plate is the. A cathode B filament (heater) C grid D emitter B In a vacuum tube, the electrode that emits electrons is the. A grid B collector C plate D cathode B What is inside the envelope of a triode tube? A A vacuum B Argon C Air D Neon B How many grids are there in a triode vacuum tube? A Three B Three plus a filament C One D Two Resistor values text page 27 B How do you find a resistor's tolerance rating? A By reading its Baudot code B By using a voltmeter C By reading the resistor's colour code D By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors B What do the first three-colour bands on a resistor indicate? A The power rating in watts B The resistance tolerance in percent C The value of the resistor in ohms D The resistance material B What would the fourth colour band on a 47 ohm resistor indicate? A The resistance material B The resistance tolerance in percent C The value of the resistor in ohms D The power rating in watts B What are the possible values of a 100 ohm resistor with a 10% tolerance? A 10 to 100 ohms B 80 to 120 ohms C 90 to 110 ohms D 90 to 100 ohms B How do you find a resistor's value? A By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors B By using the Baudot code C By using the resistor's colour code D By using a voltmeter B A club project requires that a resistive voltage divider provide a very accurate and predictable ratio. Of this list which resistor tolerance would you select? A 0.1% B 5% C 10% D 20% B You need a current limiting resistor for a light-emitting diode (LED). The actual resistance is not critical at all. Out of this list, which resistor tolerance would you select? A 0.1% B 5% C 10% D 20% B If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to the resistance? A It will become time dependent B It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade C It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating D It will stay the same B A gold tolerance band on a resistor indicates the tolerance is: A 10% B 1% C 5% D 20% B Which colour band would differentiate a 120-ohm from a 1200-ohm resistor? A Third band B First band C Second band D Fourth band B Given that red=2, violet=7 and yellow=4, what is the nominal value of a resistor which reads "red", "violet" and yellow"? A 27 megohms B 270 kilohms C 274 ohms D 72 kilohms Metric Prefixes text page 28 B If a dial marked in megahertz shows a reading of MHz, what would it show if it were marked in kilohertz? A khz B khz C khz D 3525 khz B kilovolts is equal to: A volts B 6600 volts C 660 volts D 66 volts B If a voltmeter marked in volts is used to measure a 3500 millivolt potential, what reading would it show? A 0.35 volt B 35 volts C 350 volts D 3.5 volts B How many microfarads is picofarads? A 1 microfarad B microfarads C 1000 microfarads D microfarad B If you have a hand-held transceiver which puts out 500 milliwatts, how many watts would this be? A 0.5 B 5 C 50 D 0.02 B A kilohm is: A 0.1 ohm B ohm C 10 ohms D 1000 ohms B If an ammeter marked in amperes is used to measure a 3000 milliampere current, what reading would it show? A amperes B 3 amperes C ampere D 0.3 ampere B A current of one quarter ampere may be written as: A 0.25 milliampere B 250 microamperes C 250 milliamperes D0.5 amperes B How many millivolts are equivalent to two volts? A B C D B One megahertz is equal to: A Hz B 10 Hz C khz D 100 khz B An inductance of microhenrys may be stated correctly as: A 100 millihenrys B 10 henrys C henrys D 10 millihenrys

77 Current, Voltage, Resistance, Conductance text page 29 B Name three good electrical conductors. A Gold, silver, wood B Copper, aluminum, paper C Copper, gold, mica D Gold, silver, aluminum B Name four good electrical insulators. A Glass, air, plastic, porcelain B Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon C Paper, glass, air, aluminum D Glass, wood, copper, porcelain B Why do resistors sometimes get hot when in use? A Their reactance makes them heat up B Hotter circuit components nearby heat them up C They absorb magnetic energy which makes them hot D Some electrical energy passing through them is lost as heat B What is the best conductor among the following materials? A aluminium B copper C carbon D silicon B Which type of material listed will most readily allow an electric current to flow? A a conductor B an insulator C a semiconductor D a dielectric B A length of metal connected in a circuit is found to conduct electricity very well. It would be best described as having a: A high wattage B low wattage C low resistance D high resistance B The letter "R" is the symbol for: A reactance B resistance C impedance D reluctance B The reciprocal of resistance is: A conductance B reactance C reluctance D permeability B Voltage drop means: A the difference in voltage at output terminals of a transformer B the voltage which is dissipated before useful work is done C the voltage developed across the terminals of a component D any point in a radio circuit which has zero voltage B The resistance of a conductor changes with: A temperature B voltage C current D humidity B The most common material used to make a resistor is: A lead B carbon C gold D mica Electrical Power text page 29 B What is used to describe the rate at which electrical energy is used? A Voltage B Resistance C Power D Current B If you have light bulbs marked 40 watts, 60 watts and 100 watts, which one will use electrical energy the fastest? A The 40 watt bulb B The 60 watt bulb C The 100 watt bulb D They will all be the same B What is the basic unit of electrical power? A The watt B The ampere C The volt D The ohm B Which electrical circuit will have no current? A A short circuit B A complete circuit C A closed circuit D An open circuit B Which electrical circuit draws too much current? A A short circuit B A dead circuit C A closed circuit D An open circuit B Power is expressed in: A amperes B ohms C watts D volts B Which of the following two quantities should be multiplied together to find power? A Voltage and inductance B Resistance and capacitance C Voltage and current D Inductance and capacitance B Which two electrical units multiplied together give the unit "watts"? A Amperes and henrys B Volts and amperes C Volts and farads D Farads and henrys B A resistor in a circuit becomes very hot and starts to burn. This is because the resistor is dissipating too much: A voltage B resistance C current D power B High power resistors are usually large with heavy leads. The size aids the operation of the resistor by: A allowing higher voltage to be handled B increasing the effective resistance of the resistor C making it shock proof D allowing heat to dissipate more readily B The resistor that could dissipate the most heat would be marked: A 2 ohms B 0.5 watt C 20 watts D 100 ohms Ohms Law text page 30 B If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor? A 100 volts B 48 volts C 52 volts D 25 volts B How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and resistance are known? A Current equals resistance divided by voltage B Current equals power divided by voltage C Current equals voltage divided by resistance D Current equals resistance multiplied by voltage B How is the resistance in a DC circuit calculated when the voltage and current are known? A Resistance equals voltage divided by current B Resistance equals current multiplied by voltage C Resistance equals power divided by voltage D Resistance equals current divided by voltage B How is the voltage in a DC circuit calculated when the current and resistance are known? A Voltage equals power divided by current B Voltage equals current multiplied by resistance C Voltage equals current divided by resistance D Voltage equals resistance divided by current B If a 12-volt battery supplies 0.25 ampere to a circuit, what is the circuit's resistance? A 0.25 ohm B 48 ohms C 3 ohms D 12 ohms B Calculate the value of resistance necessary to drop 100 volts with current flow of 0.8 milliamperes: A 1250 ohms B 1.25 kilohms C 125 kilohms D 125 ohms B The voltage required to force a current of 4.4 amperes through a resistance of 50 ohms is: A 2220 volts B 22.0 volts C volt D220 volts B A lamp has a resistance of 30 ohms and a 6 volt battery is connected. The current flow is; A 0.2 ampere B 2 amperes C 0.5 ampere D ampere B What voltage is needed to supply a current of 200 milliamperes to an electric lamp with a resistance of 25 ohms? A 175 volts B 225 volts C 5 volts D 8 volts B The resistance of a circuit can be found by using one of the following: A, R = I/E B, R = E/R C, R = E x I D, R = E/I B If a 3 volt battery supplies 300 milliamperes to a circuit, the circuit resistance is: A 9 ohms B 5 ohms C 3 ohms D 10 ohms 77

78 78 Resistors in Series and Parallel text page 30 B In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors? A It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total number of resistors B It equals the sum of the branch currents through each resistor C It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor D It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit B Three resistors, respectively rated at 10, 15 and 20 ohms are connected in parallel across a 6-volt battery. Which statement is true? A The voltage drop across the 20 ohm resistance is greater than the voltage across the 10 ohm resistance B The current through the 10 ohms, 15 ohms and 20 ohms separate resistances, when added together, equals the total current drawn from the battery. C The current flowing through the 10 ohm resistance is less than that flowing through the 20 ohm resistance D The voltage drop across each resistance added together equals 6 volts B Total resistance in a parallel circuit: A is always less than the smallest resistance C could be equal to the resistance of one branch B depends upon the voltage drop across each branch D depends upon the applied voltage B Two resistors are connected in parallel and are connected across a 40 volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total current is: A 80 milliamperes B 40 milliamperes C 80 amperes D 40 amperes B The total resistance of resistors connected in series is: A equal to the highest resistance present B equal to the lowest resistance present C greater than the resistance of any one resistor D less than the resistance of any one resistor B Five 10 ohm resistors connected in series equals: A 10 ohms B 1 ohm C 50 ohms D 5 ohms B Which series combination of resistors would replace a single 120 ohm resistor? A Five 24 ohm B Six 22 ohm C Two 62 ohm D Five 100 ohm B If ten resistors of equal value were wired in parallel, the total resistance would be: A, 10 / R B, 10 x R C, 10 + R D, R / 10 B The total resistance of four 68 ohm resistors wired in parallel is: A 34 ohms B 272 ohms C 17 ohms D 12 ohms B Two resistors are in parallel. Resistor A carries twice the current of resistor B, which means that: A, B has half the resistance of A B, A has half the resistance of B C, the voltage across B is twice that across A D the voltage across A is twice that across B B The total current in a parallel circuit is equal to the: A current in any one of the parallel branches B sum of the currents through all the parallel branches C source voltage divided by the value of one of the resistive elements D source voltage divided by the sum of the resistive elements Power Law Text page 31 B Why would a large size resistor be used instead of a smaller one of the same resistance? A For a higher current gain B For less impedance in the circuit C For greater power dissipation D For better response time B How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12 volt DC light bulb that draws 0.2 ampere? A 6 watts B 2.4 watts C 60 watts D 24 watts B The DC input power of a transmitter operating at 12 volts and drawing 500 milliamperes would be: A 500 watts B 12 watts C 6 watts D 20 watts B When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are in series, the maximum total power that can be dissipated by the resistors is: A 1 watt B 1/2 watt C 4 watts D2 watts B When two 500 ohm 1 watt resistors are connected in parallel, they can dissipate a maximum total power of: A 1 watt B 4 watts C 2 watts D 1/2 watt B If the voltage applied to two resistors in series is doubled, how much will the total power change? A Double B No change C Increase four times D Decrease to half B Which combination of resistors could make up a 50 ohms dummy load capable of safely dissipating 5 watts? A Two 2-watt 25 ohms resistors in series B Ten quarter-watt 500 ohms resistors in parallel C Four 2-watt 200 ohms resistors in parallel D Two 5-watt 100 ohms resistors in series B A 12 volt light bulb is rated at a power of 30 watts. The current drawn would be: A 12/30 amperes B 30/12 amperes C 18 amperes D 360 amperes B If two 10 ohm resistors are connected in series with a 10 volt battery, the power consumption would be: A 10 watts B 20 watts C 100 watts D 5 watts B One advantage of replacing a 50 ohm resistor with a parallel combination of two similarly rated 100 ohm resistors is that the parallel combination will have: A lesser resistance and similar power rating B the same resistance but greater power rating C the same resistance but lesser power rating D greater resistance and similar power rating B Resistor wattage ratings are: A expressed in joules C determined by heat dissipation qualities B variable in steps of one hundred D calculated according to physical size and tolerance rating

79 Frequency and Wavelength text page 31 B What term means the number of times per second that an alternating current flows back and forth? A Frequency B Speed C Pulse rate D Inductance B Approximately what frequency range can most humans hear? A Hz B Hz C Hz D 0-20 Hz B Why do we call signals in the range 20 Hz to Hz audio frequencies? A Because the human ear can sense radio waves in this range B Because the human ear can sense sounds in this range C Because the human ear cannot sense anything in this range D Because this range is too low for radio energy B Electrical energy at a frequency of 7125 khz is in what frequency range? A Audio B Hyper C Super-high D Radio B What is the name for the distance an AC signal travels during one complete cycle? A Wave spread B Wavelength C Wave speed D Waveform B What happens to a signal's wavelength as its frequency increases? A It stays the same B It disappears C It gets shorter D It gets longer B What happens to a signal's frequency as its wavelength gets longer? A It goes up B It goes down C It disappears D It stays the same B What does 60 hertz (Hz) mean? A 60 metres per second B 6000 cycles per second C 60 cycles per second D 6000 metres per second B If the frequency of the waveform is 100 Hz, the time for one cycle is: A 0.01 second B 10 seconds C second D 1 second B Current in an AC circuit goes through a complete cycle in 0.1 second. This means the AC has a frequency of: A 1 Hz B 100 Hz C 1000 Hz D 10 Hz B A signal is composed of a fundamental frequency of 2 khz and another of 4 khz. This 4 khz signal is referred to as: A the DC component of the main signal B a dielectric signal of the main signal C a harmonic of the 2 khz signal D a fundamental of the 2 khz signal Decibels text page 32 B A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many db? A 6 db higher B 12 db higher C 1 db higher D 3 db higher B How can you decrease your transmitter's power by 3 db? A Divide the original power by 3 B Divide the original power by 4 C Divide the original power by 2 D Divide the original power by 1.5 B How can you increase your transmitter's power by 6 db? A Multiply the original power by 4 B Multiply the original power by 3 C Multiply the original power by 2 D Multiply the original power by 1.5 B A signal-strength report is "10 db over S9", what is the report if the transmitter power goes from 1500 watts to 150w A S9 minus 10 db B S9 plus 5 db C S9 D S9 plus 3 db B If a signal-strength report is "20 db over S9", what should the report be if the transmitter power is reduced from 1500 watts to 150 watts? A S9 plus 5 db B S9 plus 3 db C S9 D S9 plus 10 db B The unit "decibel" is used to indicate: A certain radio waves B a single side band signal C a mathematical ratio D an oscilloscope wave form B The power output from a transmitter increases from 1 watt to 2 watts. This is a db increase of: A 6 B 1 C 3 D 30 B The power of a transmitter is increased from 5 watts to 50 watts by a linear amplifier. The power gain, in db, is: A 40 db B 20 db C 10 db D 30 db B You add a 9 db gain amplifier to your 2 watt handheld. What is the power output of the combination? A 11 watts B 20 watts C 18 watts D 16 watts B The power of a transmitter is increased from 2 watts to 8 watts. This is a power gain of db. A 6 db B 3 db C 8 db D 9 db B A local amateur reports your 100W 2M simplex VHF transmission as 30 db over S9. To reduce your signal to S9, you would reduce your power to watts. A, 100 mw B, 1 W C, 10 W D, 33.3 W 79

80 80 Inductors and Capacitors text pages 32, 33 B If two equal-value inductors are connected in series, what is their total inductance? A Twice the value of one inductor B Half the value of one inductor C The same as the value of either inductor D The value of one inductor times the value of the other B If two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel, what is their total inductance? A Twice the value of one inductor B The same as the value of either inductor C The value of one inductor times the value of the other D Half the value of one inductor B If two equal-value capacitors are connected in series, what is their total capacitance? A The value of one capacitor times the value of the other B Half the value of either capacitor C Twice the value of one capacitor D The same as the value of either capacitor B If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their total capacitance? A Half the value of one capacitor B Twice the value of one capacitor C The same as the value of either capacitor D The value of one capacitor times the value of the other B What determines the inductance of a coil? A The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil. B The core material, the number of turns used to wind the coil and the frequency of the current through the coil C The coil diameter, the number of turns of wire used to wind the coil and the type of metal used for the wire D The core material, the coil diameter, the length of the coil and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically B What determines the capacitance of a capacitor? A The material between the plates, the area of one plate, the number of plates and the material used for the protective coating B The material between the plates, the surface area of the plates, the number of plates and the spacing between the plates C The material between the plates, the number of plates and the size of the wires connected to the plates D The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and whether the dielectric material is N type or P type B If two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel, what is their capacitance? A Twice the value of either capacitor B The same value of either capacitor C The value of one capacitor times the value of the other D Half the value of either capacitor B To replace a faulty 10 millihenry choke, you could use two: A 30 millihenry chokes in parallel B 5 millihenry chokes in parallel C 5 millihenry chokes in series D 20 millihenry chokes in series B Three 15 microfarad capacitors are wired in series. The total capacitance of this arrangement is: A 18 microfarads B 5 microfarads C 45 microfarads D 12 microfarads B Which series combinations of capacitors would best replace a faulty 10 microfarad capacitor? A Two 20 microfarad capacitors B Two 10 microfarad capacitors C Twenty 2 microfarad capacitors D Ten 2 microfarad capacitors B The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is: A found by adding each of the capacitors together and dividing by the total number of capacitors B found by adding each of the capacitors together C always greater than the largest capacitor D always less than the smallest capacitor Reactance and Impedance B How does a coil react to AC? A As the amplitude of the AC increases, the reactance decreases B As the amplitude of the AC increases, the reactance increases C As the frequency of the AC increases, the reactance decreases D As the frequency of the AC increases, the reactance increases B How does a capacitor react to AC? A As the amplitude of the AC increases, the reactance decreases B As the frequency of the AC increases, the reactance decreases C As the frequency of the AC increases, the reactance increases D As the amplitude of the AC increases, the reactance increases B The reactance of capacitors increases as: A frequency increases B frequency decreases C applied voltage increases D applied voltage decreases B In inductors, AC is opposed by both wire resistance and reactance due to inductance. Which term includes resistance and reactance? A capacitance B impedance C resonance D inductance B Capacitive reactance: A applies only to series RLC circuits B increases as frequency increases C increases with the time constant D decreases as frequency increases B Inductive reactance may be increased by: A an increase in the applied voltage B an increase in the applied frequency C a decrease in the applied frequency D a decrease in the supplied current B What property allows a coil wound on a ferrite core to mitigate the effects of an offending radio signal? A Low reactance at audio frequencies B High reactance at audio frequencies C High reactance at radio frequencies D Low reactance at radio frequencies B What property allows an RF bypass capacitor on an audio circuit to divert an offending radio signal? A High reactance at audio frequencies B Low reactance at radio frequencies C High reactance at radio frequencies D Low reactance at audio frequencies B What property allows an RF bypass capacitor to have little effect on an audio circuit? A Low reactance at low frequencies B High reactance at low frequencies C Low reactance at high frequencies D High reactance at high frequencies B What property allows an RF choke coil to have little effect on signals meant to flow through the coil? A High reactance at low frequencies B Low reactance at high frequencies C High reactance at high frequencies D Low reactance at low frequencies B In general, the reactance of inductors increases with: A increasing applied voltage B increasing AC frequency C decreasing AC frequency D decreasing applied voltage

81 Transformers text page 34 B If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is current in the primary winding called? A Magnetizing current B Direct current C Latent current D Stabilizing current B A transformer operates a 6.3 volt 2 ampere light bulb from its secondary winding. The input power to the primary winding is approximately: A 3 watts B 13 watts C 6 watts D 8 watts B A transformer has a 240 volt primary that draws a current of 250 milliamperes from the mains supply. Assuming no losses and only one secondary, what current would be available from the 12 volt secondary? A 50 amperes B 5 amperes C 215 amperes D 25 amperes B In a mains power transformer, the primary winding has 250 turns, and the secondary has 500. If the input voltage is 120 volts, the likely secondary voltage is: A 480 V B 610 V C 26 V D 240 V B The strength of the magnetic field around a conductor in air is: A inversely proportional to the voltage on the conductor B directly proportional to the current in the conductor C inversely proportional to the diameter of the conductor D directly proportional to the diameter of the conductor B Maximum induced voltage in a coil occurs when: A current is going through its least rate of change C current is going through its greatest rate of change B the magnetic field around the coil is not changing D the current through the coil is of a DC nature B The voltage induced in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is at a maximum when the movement is: A made in a counter clockwise direction B parallel to the lines of force C made in a clockwise direction D perpendicular to the lines of force B A 100% efficient transformer has a turns ratio of 1/5. If secondary current is 50 milliamperes, the primary current is: A 0.25 A B ma C 0.01 A D 0.25 ma B A force of repulsion exists between two magnetic poles. A positive B negative C like D unlike B A permanent magnet would most likely be made from: A aluminum B brass C steel D copper B The fact that energy transfer from primary to secondary windings in a power transformer is not perfect is indicated by: A warm iron laminations B electrostatic shielding C large secondary currents D high primary voltages Resonance text page 34 B Resonance is the condition that exists when: A resistance is equal to the reactance C inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit B Parallel tuned circuits offer: A high impedance at resonance C zero impedance at resonance B inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal D the circuit contains no resistance B low impedance at resonance D an impedance equal to resistance of the circuit B Resonance is an electrical property used to describe: A an inductor B a set of parallel inductors C the results of tuning a varicap (varactor) D the frequency characteristic of a coil and capacitor circuit B A tuned circuit is formed from two basic components. These are: A resistors and transistors B directors and reflectors C diodes and transistors D inductors and capacitors B When a parallel coil-capacitor combination is supplied with AC of different frequencies, there will be one frequency where the impedance will be highest. This is the: A reactive frequency B resonant frequency C impedance frequency D inductive frequency B In a parallel-resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has a: A high impedance B low impedance C low mutual inductance D high mutual inductance B In a series resonant circuit at resonance, the circuit has: A low impedance B high impedance C low mutual inductance D high mutual inductance B A coil and an air-spaced capacitor are arranged to form a resonant circuit. The resonant frequency staythe same if we: A wind more turns on the coil B add a resistor to the circuit C increase the area of plates in the capacitor D insert Mylar sheets between the plates of the capacitor B Resonant circuits in a receiver are used to: A select signal frequencies B filter direct current C increase power D adjust voltage levels B Resonance is the condition that exists when: A inductive reactance is the only opposition in the circuit B the circuit contains no resistance C resistance is equal to the reactance D inductive reactance and capacitive reactance are equal and opposite in sign B When a series LCR circuit is tuned to the frequency of the source, the: A line current reaches maximum B line current lags the applied voltage C line current leads the applied voltage D impedance is maximum 81

82 82 Meters text page 35 B How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test? A In quadrature with the circuit B In phase with the circuit C In parallel with the circuit D In series with the circuit B How is an ammeter usually connected to a circuit under test? A In parallel with the circuit B In series with the circuit C In quadrature with the circuit D In phase with the circuit B What does a multimeter measure? A Resistance, capacitance and inductance C SWR and power B Resistance and reactance D Voltage, current and resistance B The correct instrument to measure plate current or collector current of a transmitter is: A an ammeter B an ohmmeter C a wattmeter D a voltmeter B What meter is used to measure the power supply current drawn by a small hand-held transistorized receiver? A An RF power meter B An electrostatic voltmeter C A DC ammeter D An RF ammeter B When measuring current drawn from a DC power supply, it is true to say that the meter will act in circuit as: A an extra current drain B an insulator C a low value resistance D a perfect conductor B When measuring the current drawn by a receiver from a power supply, the current meter should be placed: A in series with one of the receiver power leads B in series with both receiver power leads C in parallel with both receiver power supply leads D in parallel with one of the receiver power leads B Potential difference is measured by means of: A a voltmeter B a wattmeter C an ohmmeter D an ammeter B The instrument used for measuring the flow of electrical current is the: A faradmeter B wattmeter C voltmeter D ammeter B In measuring volts and amperes, the connections should be made with: A the voltmeter in series and ammeter in parallel B both voltmeter and ammeter in series C both voltmeter and ammeter in parallel D the voltmeter in parallel and ammeter in series Transmission Lines text page 36 B What connects your transceiver to your antenna? A A dummy load B A transmission line C The power cord D A ground wire B The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is determined by the: A frequency at which the line is operated B load placed on the line C physical dimensions and relative positions of the conductors D length of the line B The characteristic impedance of a 20 metre piece of transmission line is 52 ohms. If 10 metres were cut off, the impedance would be: A 13 ohms B 52 ohms C 26 ohms D 39 ohms B The characteristic impedance of a coaxial line: A is greater for larger diameter line B can be the same for different diameter line C changes significantly with the frequency of the energy it carries D is correct for only one size of line B What antenna transmission line can be buried directly in the ground for some distance without adverse effects? A 75 ohm twin-lead B Coaxial cable C 300 ohm twin-lead D 600 ohm open-wire line B The characteristic impedance of a transmission line is: A equal to the pure resistance which, if connected to the end of the line, will absorb all the power arriving along it B the impedance of a section of the line one wavelength long C the dynamic impedance of the line at the operating frequency D the ratio of the power supplied to the line to the power delivered to the load B A transmission line differs from an ordinary circuit or network in communications or signalling devices in one very important way. That important aspect is: A capacitive reactance B inductive reactance C resistance D propagation delay B The characteristic impedance of a parallel wire transmission line does not depend on the: A centre to centre distance between conductors B dielectric C velocity of energy on the line D radius of the conductors B If the impedance terminating a transmission line differs significantly from the characteristic impedance of the line, what will be observed at the input of the line? A An impedance nearly equal to the characteristic impedance B Some value of impedance influenced by line length C An infinite impedance D A negative impedance B What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel-conductor antenna transmission line? A The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal B The frequency of the signal and the length of the line C The distance between the centres of the conductors and the radius of the conductors D The distance between the centres of the conductors and the length of the line B What factors determine the characteristic impedance of a coaxial antenna transmission line? A The ratio of the diameter of the inner conductor to the diameter of the outer shield B The diameter of the shield and the length of the line C The diameter of the shield and the frequency of the signal D The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

83 Balanced and Unbalanced Feedlines text page 36 B What is a coaxial cable? A A centre wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield B Two wires side-by-side in a plastic ribbon C Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating rods D Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral B What is parallel-conductor transmission line? A Two wires side-by-side held apart by insulating material B Two wires twisted around each other in a spiral C A centre wire inside an insulating material which is covered by a metal sleeve or shield D A metal pipe which is as wide or slightly wider than a wavelength of the signal it carries B What kind of antenna transmission line is made of two conductors held apart by insulated rods? A Twin lead in a plastic ribbon B Twisted pair C Open wire line D Coaxial cable B What does the term "balun" mean? A Balanced to unbalanced B Balanced unloader C Balanced unmodulator D Balanced antenna network B Where would you install a balun to feed a dipole antenna with 50-ohm coaxial cable? A Between the antenna and the ground B Between the coaxial cable and the ground C Between the coaxial cable and the antenna D Between the transmitter and the coaxial cable B What is an unbalanced line? A Transmission line with neither conductor connected to ground B Transmission line with both conductors connected to ground C Transmission line with both conductors connected to each other D Transmission line with one conductor connected to ground B What device can be installed to feed a balanced antenna with an unbalanced transmission line? A A triaxial transformer B A wave trap C A loading coil D A balun B A flexible coaxial line contains: A two parallel conductors separated by spacers B braided shield conductor and insulation around a central conductor C four or more conductors running parallel D only one conductor B A balanced transmission line: A carries RF current on one wire only B is made of one conductor only C is made of two parallel wires D has one conductor inside the other B A 75 ohm transmission line could be matched to the 300 ohm feed point of an antenna: A with an extra 250 ohm resistor B by using a 4 to 1 trigatron C by inserting a diode in one leg of the antenna D by using a 4 to 1 impedance transformer B What kind of antenna transmission line can be constructed using two conductors which are maintained a uniform distance apart using insulated spreaders? A Coaxial cable B 75 ohm twin-lead C 300 ohm twin-lead D 600 ohm open wire line Connectors, Transmission Line Selection text page 37 B Why does coaxial cable make a good antenna transmission line? A It is weatherproof, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas B It is weatherproof, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas C It can be used near metal objects, and its impedance is higher than that of most amateur antennas D You can make it at home, and its impedance matches most amateur antennas B What is the best antenna transmission line to use, if it must be put near grounded metal objects? A Coaxial cable B Ladder-line C Twisted pair D Twin lead B What are some reasons not to use parallel-conductor transmission line? A It is difficult to make at home, and it does not work very well with a high SWR B It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and you should use a balun and may have to use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver C You must use an impedance-matching device with your transceiver, and it does not work very well with a high SWR D It does not work well when tied down to metal objects, and it cannot operate under high power B What common connector type usually joins RG-213 coaxial cable to an HF transceiver? A A PL-259 connector B An F-type cable connector C A banana plug connector D A binding post connector B What common connector usually joins a hand-held transceiver to its antenna? A A PL-259 connector B An F-type cable connector C A binding post connector D An SMA connector B Which of these common connectors has the lowest loss at UHF? A An F-type cable connector B A BNC connector C A PL-259 connector D A type-n connector B If you install a 6 metre Yagi on a tower 60 metres (200 ft) from your transmitter, which of the following transmission lines provides the least loss? A RG-58 B RG-213 C RG-174 D RG-59 B Why should you regularly clean and tighten all antenna connectors? A To keep them looking nice B To keep them from getting stuck in place C To increase their capacitance D To help keep their contact resistance at a minimum B What common transmission line can be buried directly in ground for some distance without adverse effects? A 75 ohm twin-lead B 600 ohm open wire line C 300 ohm twin-lead D Coaxial cable B When antenna transmission lines must be placed near grounded metal objects, which transmission lines should be used? A 600 ohm open wire line B 75 ohm twin-lead C Coaxial cable D 300 ohm twin-lead B TV twin-lead transmission line can be used for a transmission line in an amateur station. The impedance of this line is approximately: A 50 ohms B 70 ohms C 300 ohms D 600 ohms 83

84 84 Transmission Line Losses text page 37 B Why should you use only good quality coaxial cable and connectors for a UHF antenna system? A To keep the standing wave ratio of your antenna system high B To keep RF loss low C To keep television interference high D To keep the power going to your antenna system from getting too high B What are some reasons to use parallel-conductor transmission line? A It has low impedance, and will operate with a high SWR B It will operate with a high SWR, and it works well tied down to metal objects C It has a low impedance, and less loss than coaxial cable D It will operate with a high SWR, and less loss than coaxial cable B If your transmitter and antenna are 15 metres (50 ft) apart, but are connected by 60 metres (200 ft) of RG-58 coaxial cable, what should be done to reduce transmission line loss? A Shorten the excess cable B Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an odd number of wavelengths long C Roll the excess cable into a coil which is as small as possible D Shorten the excess cable so the transmission line is an even number of wavelengths long B As the length of a transmission line is changed, what happens to signal loss? A Signal loss decreases as length increases B Signal loss is the least when the length is the same as the signal's wavelength C Signal loss is the same for any length of transmission line D Signal loss increases as length increases B As the frequency of a signal is changed, what happens to signal loss in a transmission line? A Signal loss is the least when the signal's wavelength is the same as the transmission line's length B Signal loss is the same for any frequency C Signal loss increases with increasing frequency D Signal loss increases with decreasing frequency B Losses occurring on a transmission line between transmitter and antenna results in: A reflections occurring in the line B the wire radiating RF energy C less RF power being radiated D an SWR reading of 1:1 B The lowest loss transmission line on HF is: A 75 ohm twin-lead B coaxial cable C 300 ohm twin-lead D open wire line B In what values are RF transmission line losses expressed? A db per unit length B Ohms per MHz C db per MHz D Ohms per metre B If the length of coaxial cable is increased from 20 metres (66 ft) to 40 metres (132 ft), how would this affectthe line loss? A It would be reduced by 10% B It would be increased by 10% C It would be reduced to 50% D It would be increased by 100% B If the frequency is increased, how would this affect the loss on a transmission line? A It would decrease B It would increase C It is independent of frequency D It depends on the line length SWR text page 38 B What does an SWR reading of 1:1 mean? A The best impedance match has been attained B An antenna for another frequency band is probably connected C No power is going to the antenna D The SWR meter is broken B What does an SWR reading of less than 1.5:1 mean? A An impedance match which is too low B A serious impedance mismatch; something may be wrong with the antenna system C An antenna gain of 1.5 D A fairly good impedance match B What kind of SWR reading may mean poor electrical contact between parts of an antenna system? A A negative reading B No reading at all C A very low reading D A jumpy reading B What does a very high SWR reading mean? A The transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing that it is about to go bad B There is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor radio conditions C The signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which means very good radio condition D The antenna is the wrong length for the operating frequency, or the transmission line may be open or short circuited. B What does standing-wave ratio mean? A The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a transmission line B The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a transmission line C The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a transmission line D The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a transmission line B If your antenna transmission line gets hot when you are transmitting, what might this mean? A You should transmit using less power B The conductors in the transmission line are not insulated very well C The transmission line is too long D The SWR may be too high, or the transmission line loss may be high B If the characteristic impedance of the transmission line does not match the antenna input impedance then: A standing waves are produced in the transmission line B heat is produced at the junction C the SWR reading falls to 1:1 D the antenna will not radiate any signal B The result of the presence of standing waves on a transmission line is: A perfect impedance match between transmitter and transmission line B maximum transfer of energy to the antenna from the transmitter C lack of radiation from the transmission line D reduced transfer of RF energy to the antenna B An SWR meter measures the degree of match between transmission line and antenna by: A comparing forward and reflected voltage B measuring radiated RF energy C measuring the conductor temperature D inserting a diode in the transmission line B A resonant antenna with a feed point impedance of 200 ohms is connected to a transmission line which has an impedance of 50 ohms. What will the standing wave ratio of this system be? A 4:1 B 6:1 C 3:1 D 5:1 B The type of transmission line best suited to operating at a high standing wave ratio is: A 600 ohm open wire line B 75 ohm twin-lead C coaxial line D 300 ohm twin-lead

85 Impedance Matching text page 38 B What device might allow use of an antenna on a band it was not designed for? A An antenna tuner B An SWR meter C A low pass filter D A high pass filter B What does an antenna tuner do? A It matches a transceiver to a mismatched antenna system B It helps a receiver automatically tune in far away stations C It switches an antenna system to a transmitter when sending, and to a receiver when listening D It switches a transceiver between different kinds of antennas connected to one transmission line B What would you use to connect a coaxial cable of 50 ohms impedance to an antenna of 17 ohms impedance? A A low pass filter B A terminating resistor C An impedance-matching device D An SWR meter B When will a power source deliver maximum output to the load? A When the impedance of the load is equal to the impedance of the source B When air wound transformers are used instead of iron-core transformers C When the power-supply fuse rating equals the primary winding current D When the load resistance is infinite B What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal impedance of the power source? A The electrical load is shorted B No current can flow through the circuit C The source delivers minimum power to the load D The source delivers maximum power to the load B Why is impedance matching important? A So the load will draw minimum power from the source B To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit C To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal D So the source can deliver maximum power to the load B To obtain efficient power transmission from a transmitter to an antenna requires: A inductive impedance B matching of impedances C high load impedance D low load resistance B To obtain efficient transfer of power from a transmitter to an antenna, it is important that there is a: A low load resistance B matching of impedance C high load impedance D proper method of balance B If an antenna is correctly matched to a transmitter, the length of transmission line: A must be an odd number of quarter-wave B must be an even number of half-waves C will have no effect on the matching D must be a full wavelength long B The reason that an RF transmission line should be matched at the transmitter end is to: A overcome fading of the transmitted signal B transfer the maximum amount of power to the antenna C ensure that the radiated signal has the intended polarization D prevent frequency drift B If the centre impedance of a folded dipole is approximately 300 ohms, and you are using RG8U (50 ohms) coaxial lines, what is the ratio required to have the line and the antenna matched? A 4:1 B 10:1 C 6:1 D 2:1 Polarization text page 39 B What does horizontal wave polarization mean? A The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface B The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface C The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface D The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface. B What does vertical wave polarization mean? A The electric and magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface B The electric lines of force of a radio wave are parallel to the Earth's surface C The electric lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface D The magnetic lines of force of a radio wave are perpendicular to the Earth's surface B What electromagnetic wave polarization does a Yagi antenna have when itss elements are parallel to the Earth's surface? A Helical B Vertical C Circular D Horizontal B What electromagnetic wave polarization does a half-wavelength antenna have when it is perpendicular to the Earth's surface? A Vertical B Circular C Horizontal D Parabolical B Polarization of an antenna is determined by: A the type of antenna B the magnetic field C the orientation of the electric field relative to the Earth's surface D the height of the antenna B An isotropic antenna is: A an infinitely long piece of wire B a dummy load C a half-wave reference dipole D a hypothetical point source B What is the antenna radiation pattern for an isotropic radiator? A A cardioid B A unidirectional cardioid C A sphere D A parabola B VHF signals from a mobile station using a vertical whip antenna will normally be best received using a: A random length of wire B horizontal ground-plane antenna C horizontal dipole antenna D vertical ground-plane antenna B A dipole antenna will emit a vertically polarized wave if it is: A mounted vertically B fed with the correct type of RF C too near to the ground D parallel with the ground B If an electromagnetic wave leaves an antenna vertically polarized, it will arrive at the receiving antenna, by ground wave: A horizontally polarized B polarized in any plane C vertically polarized D polarized at right angles to original B Compared with a horizontal antenna, a vertical antenna will receive a vertically polarized radio wave: A without any comparative difference B if the antenna changes the polarization C at greater strength D at weaker strength 85

86 86 Wavelength vs Physical length text page 40 B If an antenna is made longer, what happens to its resonant frequency? A It stays the same B It disappears C It decreases D It increases B If an antenna is made shorter, what happens to its resonant frequency? A It stays the same B It disappears C It decreases D It increases B The wavelength for a frequency of 25 MHz is: A 12 metres (39.4 ft) B 15 metres (49.2 ft) C 4 metres (13.1 ft) D 32 metres (105 ft) B The velocity of propagation of radio frequency energy in free space is: A kilometres per second B kilometres per second C 3000 kilometres per second D 150 kilometres per second B Adding a series inductance to an antenna would: A decrease the resonant frequency B increase the resonant frequency C have little effect D have no change on the resonant frequency B The resonant frequency of an antenna may be increased by: A shortening the radiating element B lowering the radiating element C increasing the height of the radiating element D lengthening the radiating element B The speed of a radio wave: A varies directly with frequency B is the same as the speed of light C is infinite in space D is always less than half speed of light B At the end of suspended antenna wire, insulators are used. These act to: A limit the electrical length of the antenna B increase the effective antenna length C allow the antenna to be more easily held vertically D prevent any loss of radio waves by the antenna B To lower the resonant frequency of an antenna, the operator should: A ground one end B centre feed it with TV ribbon transmission line C lengthen it D shorten it B One solution to multiband operation with a shortened radiator is the "trap dipole" or trap vertical. These "traps" are: A coils wrapped around a ferrite rod B hollow metal cans C a coil and capacitor in parallel D large wire-wound resistors B The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 2 MHz is: A 150 m (492 ft) B 360 m (1181 ft) C 1500 m (4921 ft) D 30 m (98 ft) Gain, Directivity, Radiation Patterns, Bandwidth text page 40 B What is a parasitic beam antenna? A An antenna where some elements obtain their radio energy by induction or radiation from a driven element B An antenna where the driven element obtains its radio energy by induction or radiation from director elements C An antenna where all elements are driven by direct connection to the transmission line D An antenna where wave traps are used to magnetically couple the elements B How can the bandwidth of a parasitic beam antenna be increased? A Use traps on the elements B Use tapered-diameter elements C Use closer element spacing D Use larger diameter elements B If a parasitic element slightly shorter than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern? A A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements B A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground. C The radiation pattern will not be affected D A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the dipole toward the parasitic element B If a parasitic element slightly longer than a horizontal dipole antenna is placed parallel to the dipole 0.1 wavelength from it and at the same height, what effect will this have on the antenna's radiation pattern? A The radiation pattern will not be affected B A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, from the parasitic element toward the dipole C A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two elements D A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground B The property of an antenna, defining the range of frequencies it will respond to is called its: A bandwidth B front-to-back ratio C impedance D polarization B Approximately how much gain does a half-wave dipole have over an isotropic radiator? A 2.1 db B 1.5 db C 3.0 db D 6.0 db B What is meant by antenna gain? A The power amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses B The numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna C The numerical ratio of the signal in the forward direction to the signal in the back direction D The numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared to the transmitter output power B What is meant by antenna bandwidth? A The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through the ends of the elements B The frequency range over which the antenna may be expected to perform well C Antenna length divided by the number of elements D The angle between the half-power radiation points B In free space, what is the radiation characteristic of a half-wave dipole? A Maximum radiation from the ends, minimum broadside B Omnidirectional C Maximum radiation at 45 degrees to the plane of the antenna D Minimum radiation from the ends, maximum broadside B The gain of an antenna, especially on VHF and above, is quoted in dbi. The "i" in this expression stands for: A ideal B ionosphere C interpolated D isotropic B The front-to-back ratio of a beam antenna is: A the ratio of the forward power at the 3 db points to the power radiated in the backward direction B the ratio of the maximum forward power in the major lobe to the maximum backward power radiation C the forward power of the major lobe to the backward direction power, both measured at the 3 db points D undefined

87 Vertical Antennas text page 41 B How do you calculate the length in metres (feet) of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna? A Divide 150 (491) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz B Divide 71.5 (234) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz C Divide 468 (1532) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz D Divide 300 (982) by the antenna's operating frequency in MHz B If you made a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for MHz, how long would it be? A 6.76 metres (22.2 ft) B 3.36 metres (11.0 ft) C 3.6 metres (11.8 ft) D7.2 metres (23.6 ft) B If you made a half-wavelength vertical antenna for 223 MHz, how long would it be? A 64 cm (25.2 in) B 128 cm (50.4 in) C 105 cm (41.3 in) D cm (53 in) B Why is a 5/8-wavelength vertical antenna better than a 1/4-wavelength vertical antenna for VHF or UHF mobile operations? A A 5/8-wavelength antenna is easier to install on a car B A 5/8-wavelength antenna can handle more power C A 5/8-wavelength antenna has more gain D A 5/8-wavelength antenna has less corona loss B If a magnetic-base whip antenna is placed on the roof of a car, in what direction does it send out radio energy? A Most of it goes equally in two opposite directions B Most of it goes in one direction C It goes out equally well in all horizontal directions D Most of it is aimed high into the sky B What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground plane antenna? A It brings the feed point impedance closer to 300 ohms B It lowers the radiation angle C It brings the feed point impedance closer to 50 ohms D It increases the radiation angle B What happens to the feed point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping? A It increases B It decreases C It stays the same D It approaches zero B Which of these transmission lines will give the best match to the base of a quarter-wave ground-plane antenna? A 50 ohms coaxial cable B 300 ohms balanced transmission line C 75 ohms balanced transmission line D 300 ohms coaxial cable B The main characteristic of a vertical antenna is that it will: A be easy to feed with TV ribbon transmission line B receive signals equally well from all compass points around it C be very sensitive to signals coming from horizontal antennas D require few insulators B Why is a loading coil often used with an HF mobile vertical antenna? A To lower the losses B To lower the Q C To filter out electrical noise D To tune out capacitive reactance B What is the main reason why so many VHF base and mobile antennas are 5/8 of a wavelength? A It is easy to match the antenna to the transmitter B It's a convenient length on VHF C The angle of radiation is low D The angle of radiation is high giving excellent local coverage Yagi Antennas text page 41 B How many directly driven elements do most Yagi antennas have? A Two B Three C None D One B Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz? A metres (66 feet) B metres (33.5 feet) C 5.21 metres (17 feet) D metres (35 feet) B Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz? A 5.18 metres (17 feet) B 3.2 metres (10.5 feet) C 12.8 metres (42 feet) D 6.4 metres (21 feet) B Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 MHz? A metres (35 feet) B 2.66 metres (8.75 feet) C 5.33 metres (17.5 feet) D 4.88 metres (16 feet) B What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna? A Wind load decreases B Gain increases C SWR increases D Weight decreases B What are some advantages of a Yagi with wide element spacing? A High gain, less critical tuning and wider bandwidth B High gain, lower loss and a low SWR C High front-to-back ratio and lower input resistance D Shorter boom length, lower weight and wind resistance B Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radiocommunications on the 20-metre band? A It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands B It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or behind C It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal plane D It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or vertical antenna B What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? A The number of directors versus the number of reflectors B The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction C The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors D The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction B What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna? A Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements B Use RG-58 transmission line C Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each direction around the antenna D Avoid using towers higher than 9 metres (30 feet) above the ground B The spacing between the elements on a three-element Yagi antenna, representing the best overall choice, is of a wavelength. A 0.50 B 0.75 C 0.20 D 0.10 B If the forward gain of a six-element Yagi is 10 dbi, what would the gain of two of these antennas be if they were "stacked"? A 7 dbi B 20 dbi C 10 dbi D 13 dbi 87

88 88 Wire Antennas text page 42 B If you made a half-wavelength dipole antenna for MHz, how long would it be? A 5.08 metres (16.62 ft) B 10.5 metres (34.37 ft) C metres (93.45 ft) D metres (33.26 ft) B What is one disadvantage of a random wire antenna? A You may experience RF feedback in your station B It usually produces vertically polarized radiation C It must be longer than 1 wavelength D You must use an inverted T matching network for multi-band operation B What is the low angle radiation pattern of a half-wavelength dipole HF antenna in free space installed parallel to the Earth? A It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) B It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe on the other side C It is a figure-eight, off both ends of the antenna D It is a figure-eight, perpendicular to the antenna B The impedances in ohms at the feed point of the dipole and folded dipole in free space are, respectively: A 52 and 200 B 73 and 300 C 73 and 150 D 52 and 100 B A horizontal dipole transmitting antenna, installed at an ideal height so that the ends are pointing North/South, radiates: A equally in all directions B mostly to the East and West C mostly to the South and North D mostly to the South B How does the bandwidth of a folded dipole antenna compare with that of a simple dipole antenna? A It is less than 50% B It is times the bandwidth C It is greater D It is essentially the same B What is a disadvantage of using an antenna equipped with traps? A It may radiate harmonics more readily B It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies C It must be neutralized D It can only be used for one band B What is an advantage of using a trap antenna? A It minimizes harmonic radiation B It may be used for multi-band operation C It has high directivity at the higher frequencies D It has high gain B If you were to cut a half wave dipole for 3.75 MHz, what would be its approximate length? A 75 meters (245 ft) B 38 meters (125 ft) C 32 meters (105 ft) D 45 meters (145 ft) Quad / Loop Antennas text page 42 B What is a cubical quad antenna? A Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately 1/2-electrical wavelength long B Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long C A centre-fed wire 1/2-electrical wavelength long D A vertical conductor 1/4-electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom B What is a delta loop antenna? A An antenna whose elements are each a three sided loop whose total length is approximately one electrical wavelength B A large copper ring or wire loop, used in direction finding C An antenna system made of three vertical antennas, arranged in a triangular shape D An antenna made from several triangular coils of wire on an insulating form B Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 21.4 MHz? A 3.54 metres (11.7 feet) B 0.36 metres (1.17 feet) C metres (47 feet) D 143 metres (469 feet) B Approximately how long is each side of a cubical quad antenna driven element for 14.3 MHz? A 5.36 metres (17.6 feet) B metres (70.3 feet) C metres (175 feet) D 7.13 metres (23.4 feet) B Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta loop antenna driven element for 28.7 MHz? A 3.5 metres (11.5 feet) B 2.67 metres (8.75 feet) C 7.13 metres (23.4 feet) D metres (35 feet) B Which statement about two-element delta loops and quad antennas is true? A They perform very well only at HF B They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire C They perform poorly above HF D They compare favourably with a three-element Yagi B Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation characteristics of a cubical quad antenna? A The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less directivity in the vertical plane B The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more directivity in the vertical plane C The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes D The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes B Moving the feed point of a multi-element quad antenna from a side parallel to the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect? A It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal B It will significantly decrease the antenna feed point impedance C It will significantly increase the antenna feed point impedance D It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical B What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a delta loop antenna? A The number of directors versus the number of reflectors B The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated in exactly the opposite direction C The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors D The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power radiated 90 degrees away from that direction B The cubical "quad" or "quad" antenna consists of two or more square loops of wire. The driven element has an approximate overall length of: A one wavelength B three-quarters of a wavelength C two wavelengths D one-half wavelength B The delta loop antenna consists of two or more triangular structures mounted on a boom. The overall length of the driven element is approximately: A one wavelength B one-quarter of a wavelength C two wavelengths D one-half of a wavelength

89 Propagation: Line of sight, Ground wave, Ionospheric wave text page 43 B What type of propagation usually occurs from one hand-held VHF transceiver to another nearby? A Auroral propagation B Line-of-sight propagation C Tunnel propagation D Skywave propagation B How does the range of sky-wave propagation compare to ground-wave propagation? A It is much longer B It is much shorter C It is about the same D It depends on the weather B When a signal is returned to Earth by the ionosphere, what is this called? A Tropospheric propagation B Ground-wave propagation C Earth-Moon-Earth propagation D Sky-wave propagation B How are VHF signals propagated within the range of the visible horizon? A By direct wave B By sky wave C By plane wave D By geometric wave B Skywave is another name for: A inverted wave B ionospheric wave C tropospheric wave D ground wave B That portion of the radiation which is directly affected by the surface of the Earth is called: A ground wave B tropospheric wave C ionospheric wave D inverted wave B At lower HF frequencies, radiocommunication out to 200 km is made possible by: A troposphere B skip wave C ionosphere D ground wave B The distance travelled by ground waves: A is more at higher frequencies B is the same for all frequencies C is less at higher frequencies D depends on the maximum usable frequency B The radio wave which follows a path from the transmitter to the ionosphere and back to Earth is known correctly as the: A surface wave B skip wave C ionospheric wave D F layer B Reception of high frequency (HF) radio waves beyond 4000 km is generally made possible by: A ground wave B skip wave C surface wave D ionospheric wave Ionospheric Regions text page 43 B What causes the ionosphere to form? A Lightning ionizing the outer atmosphere C Temperature changes ionizing the outer atmosphere B Release of fluorocarbons into the atmosphere D Solar radiation ionizing the outer atmosphere B What type of solar radiation is most responsible for ionization in the outer atmosphere? A Ultraviolet B Microwave C Ionized particles D Thermal B Which ionospheric region is closest to the Earth? A The E region B The F region C The A region D The D region B Which region of the ionosphere is the least useful for long distance radio-wave propagation? A The D region B The F2 region C The F1 region D The E region B What two sub-regions of ionosphere exist only in the daytime? A Electrostatic and electromagnetic B D and E C F1 and F2 D Troposphere and stratosphere B When is the ionosphere most ionized? A Midday B Dawn C Midnight D Dusk B When is the ionosphere least ionized? A Shortly before midnight B Shortly before dawn C Just after noon D Just after dusk B Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest distance radio-wave propagation? A Because it is the lowest ionospheric region B Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric regions C Because it is the highest ionospheric region D Because it exists only at night B What is the main reason the 160, 80 and 40 metre amateur bands tend to be useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours? A Because of magnetic flux B Because of a lack of activity C Because of D-region absorption D Because of auroral propagation B During the day, one of the ionospheric layers splits into two parts called: A E1 and E2 B A and B C F1 and F2 D D1 and D2 B The position of the E layer in the ionosphere is: A below the D layer B sporadic C above the F layer D below the F layer 89

90 90 Skip Zone, Skip Distance, Hop Distance text page 44 B What is a skip zone? A An area which is too far away for ground-wave propagation, but too close for sky-wave propagation B An area which is too far away for ground-wave or sky-wave propagation C An area covered by sky-wave propagation D An area covered by ground-wave propagation B What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the F2 region? A 4000km (2500 miles) B None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation C 2000 km (1250 miles) D 300 km (190 miles) B What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally covered in one hop using the E region? A 2000 km (1250 miles) B 300 km (190 miles) C 4000 km (2500 miles) D None; the E region does not support radio-wave propagation B Skip zone is: A a zone of silence caused by lost sky waves B a zone between any two refracted waves C a zone between the antenna and the return of the first refracted wave D a zone between the end of the ground wave and the point where the first refracted wave returns to Earth B The distance to Europe from your location is approximately 5000 km. What sort of propagation is the most likely A Back scatter B Tropospheric scatter C Multihop D Sporadic "E" B For radio signals, the skip distance is determined by the: A angle of radiation B type of transmitting antenna used C height of the ionosphere and the angle of radiation D power fed to the power amplifier B The distance from the transmitter to the nearest point where the sky wave returns to the Earth is called the: A maximum usable frequency B skip distance C skip zone D angle of radiation B Skip distance is the: A the minimum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere B the maximum distance reached by a signal after one reflection by the ionosphere C the minimum distance reached by a ground-wave signal D the maximum distance a signal will travel by both a ground wave and reflected wave B Skip distance is a term associated with signals from the ionosphere. Skip effects are due to: A high gain antennas being used B local cloud cover C reflection / refraction from the ionosphere D selective fading of local signals B The skip distance of a sky wave will be greatest when the: A polarization is vertical B ionosphere is most densely ionized C signal given out is strongest D angle between the ground and the radiation is smallest B If the height of the reflecting layer of the ionosphere increases, the skip distance of a high frequency (HF) transmission: A stays the same B varies regularly C decreases D becomes greater Ionospheric Effects text page 44 B What effect does the D region of the ionosphere have on lower frequency HF signals in the daytime? A It refracts the radio waves back to Earth B It has little or no effect on 80-metre radio waves C It absorbs the signals D It bends the radio waves out into space B What causes distant AM broadcast and 160 metre ham band stations not to be heard during daytime hours?? A The splitting of the F region B The weather below the ionosphere C The ionization of the D region D The presence of ionized clouds in the E region B Two or more parts of the radio wave follow different paths during propagation and this may result in phase differences at the receiver. This "change" at the receiver is called: A absorption B skip C fading D baffling B A change or variation in signal strength at the antenna, caused by differences in path lengths, is called: A absorption B fluctuation C path loss D fading B When a radio signal reaches a station by one-hop and two-hop skip paths, small changes in the ionosphere can cause: A consistently stronger signals B a change in the ground-wave signal C variations in signal strength D consistent fading of received signal B The usual effect of ionospheric storms is to: A increase the maximum usable frequency B cause a fade-out of sky-wave signals C produce extreme weather changes D prevent communications by ground wave B On the VHF and UHF bands, polarization of the receiving antenna is very important in relation to the transmitting antenna, yet on HF bands it is relatively unimportant. Why is that so? A Greater selectivity is possible with HF receivers making changes in polarization redundant B The ionosphere can change the polarization of the signal from moment to moment C The ground wave and the sky wave continually shift the polarization D Anomalies in the Earth's magnetic field produce a profound effect on HF polarization but not on VHF & UHF frequencies B What causes selective fading? A Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station B Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station C Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations D Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly before sunrise and sunset B How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading? A It is the same for both wide and narrow bandwidths B Only the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect C It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths D It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths B Polarization change often takes place on radio waves that are propagated over long distances. Which of these does not cause polarization change? A Refractions B Parabolic interaction C Reflections D Passage through magnetic fields (Faraday rotation) B Reflection of a SSB transmission from the ionosphere causes: A high-pitch squeal at the receiver B little or no phase-shift distortion C phase-shift distortion D signal cancellation at receiver

91 Solar Activity text page 44 B How do sunspots change the ionization of the atmosphere? A The more sunspots there are, the greater the ionization B The more sunspots there are, the less the ionization C Unless there are sunspots, the ionization is zero D They have no effect B How long is an average sunspot cycle? A 5 years B 7 years C 11 years D 17 years B What is solar flux? A The radio energy emitted by the sun B A measure of the tilt of the Earth's ionosphere on the side toward the sun C The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the Earth D The density of the sun's magnetic field B What is the solar-flux index? A A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results from the last six months B A measure of solar activity that is taken annually C A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency D Another name for the American sunspot number B What influences all radiocommunication beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges? A The F2 region of the ionosphere B The F1 region of the ionosphere C Lunar tidal effects D Solar radiation B Which two types of radiation from the sun influence propagation? A Polar region and equatorial emissions B Infrared and gamma-ray emissions C Electromagnetic and particle emissions D Subaudible and audio-frequency emission B When sunspot numbers are high, how is propagation affected? A High frequency radio signals become weak and distorted B Frequencies up to 40 MHz or even higher become usable for long-distance communication C High frequency radio signals are absorbed Frequencies up to 100 MHz or higher are normally usable for long-distance communication B All communication frequencies throughout the spectrum are affected in varying degrees by the: A sun B ionosphere C aurora borealis D atmospheric conditions B Average duration of a solar cycle is: A 1 year B 11 years C 3 years D 6 years B The ability of the ionosphere to reflect high frequency radio signals depends on: A the receiver sensitivity B upper atmosphere weather conditions C the amount of solar radiation D the power of the transmitted signal B HF radio propagation cycles have a period of approximately 11: A days B centuries C years D months Maximum Usable Frequency, Band openings text page 45 B What happens to signals higher in frequency than the critical frequency? A Their frequency is changed by the ionosphere to be below the maximum usable frequency B They are reflected back to their source C They pass through the ionosphere D They are absorbed by the ionosphere B What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary? A The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere B The type of weather just below the ionosphere C The amount of radiation received from the sun, mainly ultraviolet D The temperature of the ionosphere B What does maximum usable frequency mean? A The lowest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination B The highest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere C The lowest frequency signal that is most absorbed by the ionosphere D The highest frequency signal that will reach its intended destination B What can be done at an amateur station to continue HF communications during a sudden ionospheric disturbance? A Try a different frequency shift B Try a higher frequency band C Try the other sideband D Try a different antenna polarization B What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high enough to support 28 MHz propagation between your station and western Europe? A Listen for signals from 20-metre beacon stations B Listen for signals from 39-metre broadcast stations C Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz D Listen for signals from 10-metre beacon stations B What happens to radio waves of a frequency below maximum usable frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere? A They pass through the ionosphere B They are bent back to the Earth C They are changed to a frequency above the MUF D They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere B At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-metre band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours? A Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle B At the summer solstice C At any point in the solar cycle D Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle B If we transmit a signal, the frequency of which is so high we no longer receive a reflection from the ionosphere, the signal frequency is above the: A skip distance B speed of light C sunspot frequency D maximum usable frequency B Communication on the 80 metre band is generally most difficult during: A evening in summer B daytime in winter C daytime in summer D evening in winter B The optimum working frequency provides the best long range HF communication. Compared with the maximum usable frequency (MUF), it is usually: A slightly higher B slightly lower C double the MUF D half the MUF B During summer daytime, which bands are the most difficult for communications beyond ground wave? A 20 metres B 160 and 80 metres C 40 metres D 30 metres 91

92 92 Tropospheric Ducting, Sporadic E, Aurora text page 45 B Which ionospheric region most affects skywave propagation on the 6 metre band? A The E region B The F2 region C The F1 region D The D region B What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-metre radio waves? A It lets you contact stations farther away B It causes them to travel shorter distances C It garbles the signal D It reverses the sideband of the signal B What causes tropospheric ducting of radio waves? A A temperature inversion B Lightning between the transmitting and receiving stations C An aurora to the north D A very low pressure area B That portion of the radiation kept close to the Earth's surface due to bending in the atmosphere is called the: A inverted wave B ground wave C ionospheric wave D tropospheric wave B What is a sporadic-e condition? A Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height C A brief decrease in VHF signals caused by sunspot variations B Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variations D Patches of dense ionization at E-region height B On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagation effect of sporadic-e most often observed? A 160 metres B 20 metres C 2 metres D 6 metres B In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? A South B North C East D West B Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A At D-region height B At E-region height C At F-region height D In the equatorial band B Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation? A FM B SSB C CW D RTTY B Excluding enhanced propagation modes, what is the approximate range of normal VHF tropospheric propagation? A 1600 km (1000 miles) B 800 km (500 miles) C 2400 km (1500 miles) D 3200 km (2000 miles) B What effect is responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 800 km (500 miles)? A Moon bounce (EME) Earth - Moon -Earth B Tropospheric ducting C Faraday rotation D D-region absorption Scatter text page 45 B What kind of unusual HF propagation allows weak signals from the skip zone to be heard occasionally? A Sky-wave with low radiation angle B Ducting C Ground-wave D Scatter-mode B If you receive a weak, distorted signal from a distance, and close to the maximum usable frequency, what type of propagation is probably occurring? A Ducting B Scatter C Ground-wave D Line-of-sight B What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals? A Reversed sidebands B High intelligibility C Rapid flutter or hollow sounding distortion D Reversed modulation B What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? A Auroral activity and changes in the Earth's magnetic field B Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal C The state of the E-region at the point of refraction D Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave paths B Why are HF scatter signals usually weak? A Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone B Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy C The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy D Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy B What type of propagation may allow a weak signal to be heard at a distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave propagation? A Scatter B Short-path skip C Sporadic-E skip D Ground wave B On the HF bands, when is scatter propagation most likely involved? A When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high B At night C When the F1 and F2 regions are combined D When weak and distorted signals near or above the maximum usable frequency for normal propagation can be heard over unusual paths B Which of the following is not a scatter mode? A Tropospheric scatter B Ionospheric scatter C Absorption scatter D Meteor scatter B Meteor scatter is most effective on what band? A 6 metres B 40 metres C 15 metres D 160 metres B Which of the following is not a scatter mode? A Back scatter B Forward scatter C Inverted scatter D Side scatter B In which frequency range is meteor scatter most effective for extended-range communication? A MHz B 3-10 MHz C MHz D MHz

93 Front-end overload, Cross-modulation text page 46 B What is meant by receiver overload? A Too much current from the power supply B Too much voltage from the power supply C Interference caused by strong signals from a nearby transmitter D Interference caused by turning the volume up too high B What is one way to tell if radio frequency interference to a receiver is caused by front-end overload? A If the interference is about the same no matter what frequency is used for the transmitter B If grounding the receiver makes the problem worse C If connecting a low pass filter to the receiver cuts down the interference D If connecting a low pass filter to the transmitter greatly cuts down the interference B If a neighbour reports television interference whenever you transmit, no matter what band you use, what is probably the cause of the interference? A Receiver VR tube discharge B Too little transmitter harmonic suppression C Receiver overload D Incorrect antenna length B What type of filter should be connected to a TV receiver as the first step in trying to prevent RF overload from an amateur HF station transmission? A Low-pass B Band-pass C No filter D High-pass B During a club ARRL Field Day outing, reception on the 20 m SSB station is compromised every time the 20 m CW station is on the air. What might cause such interference? A Receiver desensitization B Both stations are fed from the same generator C Improper station grounding D Harmonic radiation B Inter-modulation in a broadcast receiver by a nearby transmitter would be noticed in the receiver as: A the undesired signal in the background of the desired signal B interference only when a broadcast signal is tuned C distortion on transmitted voice peaks D interference continuously across the dial B You have connected your hand-held VHF transceiver to an outside gain antenna. You now hear a mixture of signals together with different modulation on your desired frequency. What is the nature of this interference? A Audio stage intermodulation interference B Receiver intermodulation interference C Harmonic interference from other stations D Audio stage overload interference B Two or more strong out-of-band signals mix in your receiver producing interference on a desired frequency. What is this called? A Front-end desensitization B Intermodulation interference C Receiver quieting D Capture effect B Two mobile stations are traveling along the same road in close proximity to each other and having trouble communicating through a local repeater. Why may it be necessary to use simplex operation to communicate between these cars? A The strong signal of one mobile transmitter may desensitize the receiver of the other mobile receiver B Simplex operation does not require the use of CTCSS tones C There is less time delay using simplex operation compared to using a repeater D There are many more simplex frequencies than repeater frequencies available B A television receiver suffers interference on channel 5 (76-82 MHz) only when you transmit on 14 MHz. From your home you see the tower of a commercial FM station known to broadcast on 92.5 MHz. Which of these solutions would you try first? A Insert a high pass filter at the antenna connector of the HF transmitter B Insert a low pass filter at the antenna connector of the TV C Insert a high pass filter at the antenna connector of the TV D Insert a low pass filter at the antenna connector of the HF transmitter B How can intermodulation be reduced? A By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gain B By adjusting the passband tuning C By installing a suitable filter at the receiver D By using a better antenna Audio Rectification. Ferrites, RF Pickup text page 46 B What devices would you install to reduce or eliminate audio-frequency interference to home entertainment systems? A Metal-oxide varistors B Bypass inductors C Coils on ferrite cores D Bypass resistors B What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone? A Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier B Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use C Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment D Install a modular plug-in telephone RFI filter close to the telephone B What sound comes from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs? A On-and-off humming or clicking B A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air C Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals D Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals B What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a nearby CW transmission occurs? A A steady whistling B On-and-off humming or clicking C Audible, possibly distorted speech D Muffled, severely distorted speech B How can you minimize the possibility of audio rectification of your transmitter's signals? A Ensure that all station equipment is properly grounded B Install bypass capacitors on all power supply rectifiers C Use CW only D Use a solid-state transmitter B An amateur transmitter is being heard across the entire dial of a broadcast receiver. The receiver probably suffes from: A audio rectification in the receiver B harmonics interference from the transmitter C poor image rejection D splatter from the transmitter B SSB HF transmissions are heard muffled on an adjacent sound system regardless of its volume setting. What causes this? A Harmonics generated at the transmitter B Improper filtering in the transmitter C Lack of receiver sensitivity and selectivity D Audio rectification of strong signals B What can be used to minimize RF pickup by audio wires connected to stereo speakers, intercom amplifiers, telephones, etc.? A Attenuator B Diode C Ferrite core D Magnet B Stereo speaker leads often act as antennas to pick up RF signals. What is one way to minimize this effect? A Lengthen the leads B Connect the speaker through an audio attenuator C Connect a diode across the speaker D Shorten the leads B One method of preventing RF from entering a stereo set through the speaker leads is to wrap each of the speaker leads: A through a ferrite core B around a copper bar C around an iron bar D around a wooden dowel B Stereo amplifiers often have long leads which pick up transmitted signals because they act as: A transmitting antennas B RF attenuators C frequency discriminators D receiving antennas 93

94 94 Key-Clicks, Spurious Emissions, Parasitic Oscillations text page 47 B How can you prevent key-clicks? A By increasing power B By using a better power supply C By sending CW more slowly D By using a key-click filter B If signals from your hand-held transceiver interfere with other signals on a frequency near yours, what could be the cause? A Your hand-held is transmitting spurious emissions B You need a power amplifier for your hand-held C Your hand-held has a chirp from weak batteries D You need to turn the volume up on your hand-held B If your transmitter sends signals outside the band where it is transmitting, what is this called? A Side tones B Transmitter chirping C Off-frequency emissions D Spurious emissions C) B What problem may occur if your transmitter is operated without the cover and other shielding in place? A It may interfere with other stations operating near its frequency B It may transmit a chirpy signal C It may radiate spurious emissions D It may transmit a weak signal B In Morse code transmission, local RF interference (key-clicks) is produced by: A frequency shifting caused by poor voltage regulation B the power amplifier, and is caused by high frequency parasitic oscillations C poor wave shaping caused by a poor voltage regulator D the making and breaking of the circuit at the Morse key B Key-clicks, heard from a Morse code transmitter at a distant receiver, are the result of: A changes in oscillator frequency on keying B too sharp rise and decay times of the keyed carrier C power supply hum modulating the carrier D sparks emitting RF from the key contacts B In a Morse code transmission, broad bandwidth RF interference (key-clicks) heard at a distance is produced by: A shift in frequency when keying the transmitter B sparking at the key contacts C sudden movement in the receiver loudspeaker D poor shaping of the waveform B What should you do if you learn your transmitter is producing key clicks? A Turn the receiver down B Regulate the oscillator supply voltage C Use a choke in the RF power output D Check the keying filter and the functioning of later stages B A parasitic oscillation: A is generated by parasitic elements of a Yagi beam B does not cause any radio interference C is produced in a transmitter oscillator stage D is an unwanted signal developed in a transmitter B Parasitic oscillations in the RF power amplifier stage of a transmitter may be found: A on harmonic frequencies B at high frequencies only C at low frequencies only D at high or low frequencies B Transmitter RF amplifiers can generate parasitic oscillations: A on VHF frequencies only B on the transmitter fundamental frequency C on harmonics of the transmitter frequency D above or below the transmitter frequency Harmonics, Transmitter adjustments text page 47 B If a neighbour reports television interference on one or two channels only when you transmit on 15 metres, what is probably the cause of the interference? A TV receiver front-end overload B Too much low pass filtering on the transmitter C Harmonic radiation from your transmitter D De-ionization of the ionosphere near your neighbour's TV antenna B What is meant by harmonic radiation? A Signals which cause skip propagation to occur B Unwanted signals at frequencies which are multiples of the fundamental (chosen) frequency C Unwanted signals that are combined with a 60-Hz hum D Unwanted signals by sympathetic vibrations from a nearby transmitter B Why is harmonic radiation from an amateur station not wanted? A It may cause sympathetic vibrations in nearby transmitters B It may cause auroras in the air C It may cause interference to other stations and result in out-of-band signals D It uses large amounts of electric power B What type of interference may come from a multi-band antenna connected to a poorly tuned transmitter? A Harmonic radiation B Parasitic excitation C Intermodulation D Auroral distortion B If your station was heard on khz, but you were operating on 7125 khz, what is one reason this could happen? A Your transmitter was radiating harmonic signals B Your transmitter's power-supply filter choke was bad C You were sending CW too fast D Your transmitter's power-supply filter capacitor was bad B What causes splatter interference? A Overmodulating a transmitter B Keying a transmitter too fast C Signals from a transmitter's output circuit are being sent back to its input circuit D The transmitting antenna is the wrong length B Your amateur radio transmitter appears to be creating interference to the television on channel 3 (60-66 MHz) when you are transmitting on the 15 metre band. Other channels are not affected. The most likely cause is: A a bad ground at the transmitter B front-end overload of the TV C harmonic radiation from the transmitter D no high-pass filter on the TV B One possible cause of TV interference by harmonics from an SSB transmitter is from "flat topping" - driving the power amplifier into non-linear operation. The most appropriate remedy for this is: A reduce oscillator output B reduce microphone gain C retune transmitter output D use another antenna B In a transmitter, excessive harmonics are produced by: A resonant circuits B a linear amplifier C overdriven stages D low SWR B An interfering signal from a transmitter is found to have a frequency of 57 MHz(TV Channel 2 is MHz). This signal could be the: A third harmonic of a 15 metre transmission B second harmonic of a 10 metre transmission C crystal oscillator operating on its fundamental D seventh harmonic of an 80 metre transmission B Harmonics may be produced in the RF power amplifier of a transmitter if: A the oscillator frequency is unstable B modulation is applied to a high-level stage C excessive drive signal is applied to it D the output tank circuit is tuned to the fundamental frequency

95 Filters text page 47 B What type of filter might be connected to an amateur HF transmitter to cut down on harmonic radiation? A A CW filter B A low pass filter C A key-click filter D A high pass filter B Why do modern HF transmitters have a built-in low pass filter in their RF output circuits? A To reduce harmonic radiation B To reduce fundamental radiation C To reduce low frequency interference to other amateurs D To reduce RF energy below a cut-off point B What circuit blocks RF energy above and below a certain limit? A A low pass filter B A band pass filter C A high pass filter D An input filter B What should be the impedance of a low pass filter as compared to the impedance of the transmission line into which it is inserted? A About the same B Substantially lower C Twice the transmission line impedance D Substantially higher B In order to reduce the harmonic output of a high frequency (HF) transmitter, which of the following filters should be installed at the transmitter? A Low pass B Key click C High pass D Rejection B To reduce harmonic output from a high frequency transmitter, you would put a in the transmission line as close to the transmitter as possible. A high pass filter B band reject filter C wave trap D low pass filter B To reduce energy from an HF transmitter getting into a television set, you would place a as close to the TV as possible. A wave trap B band reject filter C high pass filter D low pass filter B A band pass filter will: A allow only certain frequencies through C pass frequencies each side of a band B A band reject filter will: A pass frequencies each side of a band C pass frequencies below 100 MHz B A high pass filter would normally be fitted: A between transmitter output and transmission line B at the antenna terminals of the TV receiver C between microphone and speech amplifier D at the Morse key or keying relay in a transmitter B attenuate high frequencies but not low D stop frequencies in a certain band B allow only two frequencies through D stop frequencies each side of a band B A low pass filter suitable for a high frequency transmitter would: A attenuate frequencies above 30 MHz B pass audio frequencies above 3 khz C attenuate frequencies below 30 MHz D pass audio frequencies below 3 khz 95

96 96 Lesson Plans This is the sequence of lessons in ExHaminer which will also be followed in class. Classes may not complete a full L section in a session so at the end of each class we will mark the section where we stopped. Note the paragraph numbers in each lesson do not always follow in sequence. Metric prefix practices are printed on the previous page if you miss them in class or want to work on them at home.